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In Middle English the second person singular had a completely different set of pronouns and verb forms from the second person plural. In Early Modern English, people started using the plural form for the singular as being more polite, and only used the old singular form for special cases, such as lovers talking, people talking to servants, children or dogs, and so on. These forms are still around but are quite rare.
By Shakespeare's day, this process was well advanced, but Shakespeare's country dialect was a little old-fashioned for his day. He uses the older pronoun thou and the verb forms that go with it (all of which end in -st) more often than his contemporaries.
This is so you will know that whenever you see a word in Shakespeare or the King James Bible which looks like an ordinary verb with -st on the end, you will know that it is that same word, only in use with a "thou" which you will find nearby. For an example, "thou wouldst" means "you would" (providing you are only talking about one person), "thou canst" means "you can", "thou hadst" means "you had" and so on and on.
What else can I help you with?
What does Shakespeare's word mad-bread mean?
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word townsfolk?
Shakespeare does not use the word townsfolk.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word forth?
In a forward direction.
What does shortened word oft mean in shakespeare?
Oft is not a shortened word. Often is a lengthened word. The original word is oft and the form often did not appear until about a century before Shakespeare's day. They are, of course, the same word and mean the same thing.
What does gi' mean in shakespeare plays?
William Shakespeare sometimes uses the word gi in his plays. This word has the same meaning as the word give.
What does Shakespeare's word mad-bread mean?
Sorry, Shakespeare did not use that word.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word townsfolk?
Shakespeare does not use the word townsfolk.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word forth?
In a forward direction.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word the?
Shakespeare wrote in English. "The" means exactly the same when he used it as it does when you use it.
What does shortened word oft mean in shakespeare?
Oft is not a shortened word. Often is a lengthened word. The original word is oft and the form often did not appear until about a century before Shakespeare's day. They are, of course, the same word and mean the same thing.
What does gi' mean in shakespeare plays?
William Shakespeare sometimes uses the word gi in his plays. This word has the same meaning as the word give.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word waxen?
Waxen means made of wax. Its meaning has not changed since Shakespeare used it.
What does meration mean in the play of romeo and julliet?
There is no word "meration" in Shakespeare.
What does shakespeare mean by the word thrice?
Tuu;6r0 dn7fcijnb-n0ce
What does shakespeare mean by the word fie?
Used to express distaste or disapproval.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word o'th'other?
It's short for "or the other", as in "one or the other".
What did Shakespeare mean by the word 'then'?
Shakespeare wrote in English, the same language I am using now. There is no such language as "Shakespearean language" or "Shakespeare language". It's English. A word like "then" is a building block of the English language and always means "then" when Shakespeare or any other English speaker uses it.
