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What does Shakespeare mean by the word festinately?
Don Armado in Love's Labour's Lost says this: "Sweet air! Go, tenderness of years; take this key, give enlargement to the swain, bring him festinately hither: I must employ him in a letter to my love." This is the only time Shakespeare ever uses the word, and it is in the mouth of a Spaniard whose English is not that great. It would appear to mean "speedily", but knowing Don Armado, it could mean anything. It may in fact be a word that Shakespeare made up so his audience would say, "Look at that silly Spaniard! He can't even use a proper English word!"
What does William Shakespeare mean by festinately?
Shakespeare only used this word once, in a speech by Don Armado from Love's Labour's Lost: Sweet air! Go, tenderness of years; take this key, give enlargement to the swain, bring him festinately hither: I must employ him in a letter to my love. You're probably thinking "Shakespeare wrote weird English" and it's true this time because Don Armado is a Spaniard and Shakespeare deliberately had him speaking English badly. Nobody called anyone "tenderness of years" in Shakespeare's day any more than they do now. It's ridiculous. So, my guess is that Armado is trying to say "quickly", but instead comes up with this bizarre Latin-based word that nobody would use.
What did goebellied mean when shakespeare used it in plays?
It means potbellied.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word waxen?
Waxen means made of wax. Its meaning has not changed since Shakespeare used it.
What does shakespeare mean by the word fie?
Used to express distaste or disapproval.
What does festinately mean in English?
Festinately comes from the word festinate, which has its root in Latin. It means to hurry or hasten. It is used most notably within Shakespearean plays.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word festinately?
Don Armado in Love's Labour's Lost says this: "Sweet air! Go, tenderness of years; take this key, give enlargement to the swain, bring him festinately hither: I must employ him in a letter to my love." This is the only time Shakespeare ever uses the word, and it is in the mouth of a Spaniard whose English is not that great. It would appear to mean "speedily", but knowing Don Armado, it could mean anything. It may in fact be a word that Shakespeare made up so his audience would say, "Look at that silly Spaniard! He can't even use a proper English word!"
What does William Shakespeare mean by festinately?
Shakespeare only used this word once, in a speech by Don Armado from Love's Labour's Lost: Sweet air! Go, tenderness of years; take this key, give enlargement to the swain, bring him festinately hither: I must employ him in a letter to my love. You're probably thinking "Shakespeare wrote weird English" and it's true this time because Don Armado is a Spaniard and Shakespeare deliberately had him speaking English badly. Nobody called anyone "tenderness of years" in Shakespeare's day any more than they do now. It's ridiculous. So, my guess is that Armado is trying to say "quickly", but instead comes up with this bizarre Latin-based word that nobody would use.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word the?
Shakespeare wrote in English. "The" means exactly the same when he used it as it does when you use it.
What did goebellied mean when shakespeare used it in plays?
It means potbellied.
What does Shakespeare mean by the word waxen?
Waxen means made of wax. Its meaning has not changed since Shakespeare used it.
What does shakespeare mean by the word fie?
Used to express distaste or disapproval.
Did William Shakespeare have it?
What do you mean if Shakespeare have it? If you mean does Shakespeare have what it takes, then yes. He should any way.
Why is Shakespeare mean?
Shakespeare cannot be mean - he has been dead for centuries.
What does e've mean in shakespeare?
E've was used in Shakespeare's plays to be a shorten form of the word we've. We've is already a contraction but e've was a more popular use in his time.
What were the concerts Shakespeare's globe had?
When you say "Shakespeare's Globe" you mean the theatre built in 1997. It is not used for musical performance. The Globe Playhouse (which should not be referred to as "Shakespeare's Globe" since this is the name of the modern theatre) which was built in 1599 was not, as far as we know, used for musical performance either.
What year did Shakespeare start?
Shakespeare was born in 1564, if that's what you mean. That was the year he started being Shakespeare.
