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Andrew Johnson was notably a white supremacist and he did not want any African Americans to gain any votes or have more rights. He might have stated the above "[...]black in the south and white in the north" because he felt that slavery ownership was right, and that the north was being controlled by abolitionists (of slavery) as well as the many poor whites.

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Q: What did Andrew Johnson mean when he said slavery exists it is black in the south and white in the north?
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