answersLogoWhite

0

In the 1700s, wages varied significantly by occupation, region, and gender. Generally, men earned higher wages than women, often receiving about two to three times more for similar work. Women predominantly worked in domestic roles or as laborers, with their earnings typically reflecting societal norms that undervalued their contributions. Additionally, economic conditions and local demand influenced wage levels, leading to further disparities based on gender and profession.

User Avatar

AnswerBot

1w ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

What were men and women's role in the country in the 1750's?

the men hunted and the women gathred


What were the wages like in the 1700s for a blacksmith?

Wages were about 6 Shillings (60c) in that era


How did women's wages during World War 2 compare to men's wages?

Most women remained at home to look after the children. Others worked in ammunition factories.


How did women's wages compare to men's in 1963?

In 1963, women's wages were only 59 percent of that of male workers. Prior to President Kennedy's Equal Pay Act, women were only getting $.59 out of every dollar men made. Although women have come a long way since those days, they still aren't on par with male wages, and only make about $.83 out of every dollar a man makes.


Which is a reason that women were frequently hired to work in the factories?

The factories could pay women lower wages than they could pay men.


What was the average height of individuals in the 1700s?

The average height of individuals in the 1700s was generally shorter compared to modern times, with men averaging around 5 feet 5 inches and women around 5 feet.


Why does the constitution say all men are created equally and not men and women are created equally?

i think that's a good qustion... um no I think that only reffered to white men that owned land in the 1700s.


What is an example of sexism in the 1700s?

An example of sexism in the 1700s is the legal doctrine of coverture, which held that a married woman’s legal identity was subsumed by her husband’s. This meant women could not own property, enter contracts, or earn wages in their own name, effectively rendering them legally dependent on their husbands. Additionally, societal norms prioritized men in education and professional opportunities, further entrenching gender inequality during this period.


Why did men treat woman as property in the 1700s?

Because women are indeed property of men even today. It is because majority of men enjoy dominating their wives and majority of women enjoy submitting to their husbands. Something biological I guess. Women talking like a feminist change after finding a loving dominant partner.


Why were women hired at the Lowell mills instead of men?

a common answer is lower wages (half of mans salery) men would rather plow their farmland and a need for workers


What were two ways women in the 1700s worked for equal rights?

the two ways woman worked for there equal right was the right to vote and to also have every thing equal for both men and women.


Can woman and men be treated equally in the workforce?

Men make 15-20% more in wages have more free time and I think the amusing think I hear lately is men are assertive and women are classified as aggressive in identical circumstances.Gender inequality is men and women are treated differently in the workplace. For example, women may not be paid the same wages as men even when they both are working the same position.