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it is false because they had a trade over the mayas in the early 1600s

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Q: Did The Portuguese have a monopoly over trade in Asia in the early 1600s?
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What company had a trade monopoly in Asia in early 1600s?

The Dutch East India Company :)


What company had a trade monopoly in Asia in the early 1600s?

The Dutch East India Company :)


To which country in the 1600s did the portuguese lose control of trade in the Indian ocean?

Dutch


What company was the first to trade stock on an open exchange in the early 1600s?

france


What were the portuguese contributions to the European impact an the Americas?

Establishing Portuguese wealth through trade, breaking Venice's monopoly on trade by removing their role as middlemen, starting to weaken the Ottoman Empire, introducing African slaves into the economy of Europe, etc.


Why did the importation of enslaved Africans increase in the late 1600s and early 1700s?

Because slave trade increased in popularity.


What is a fur trade monopoly?

a fur trade monopoly is the control over fur


What was the ultimate goal of the early Portuguese explorers?

The ultimate goal of the early Portuguese explorers was to find a sea route to Asia for trade in spices and other valuable goods. They sought to establish trade connections with Asian kingdoms and bypass the overland routes controlled by the Ottomans.


What does monopoly of trade mean?

a fur trade monopoly is the control over fur


How did the portuguese control the spice trade?

They discovered the Southern Route to the Indian Ocean, via Cape Hope, established trading enclaves at Indian Ocean Ports like Macau, and enforced their trade monopoly with Cannon, Ships, and Fortifications. They were tough, able, Mariners and Traders and they broke the Spice Monopoly belonging to the Arab Traders before them.


What year was the slave trade?

1500s to 1600s


How was trade for Russia in the 15-1600s?

Trade for Russia in the 15-1600s was quite minimal. As a result of this, peasants had to bear the huge burden of high taxes.