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Q: What are two reasons used to explain why appeasement was logical at that time?
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What was the polocy of appeasement?

The policy of appeasement was used by the French and British to appease Hitler in the hopes that Hitler would leave their nations alone. The "appeasement camp" thought that if Hitler was given what he wanted he would be satisfied. They did not understand Hitler and his agendas. They Brits and French were made to look like fools when they found out Hitler had already taken the the Sudetenland at the time of the Munich Conference and signing of the pact that allowed Hitler to have the Sudetenland within Czechoslovakia. The policy appeasement is as foolish as giving your lunch to the school bully when he will only come back the next day.


Why do historians identify the beginnings of history with the beginning of writing?

Historians identify this time period in human history as the beginning of 'recorded history'. Writing allows us to express, explain, document and share the reasons why we do what we do. While at the same time it creates a record for others to use to learn and understand.


What was the policy of appeasement trying to achieve?

The policy of appeasement was meant to make the Germans happy with the Versailles Treaty in theory. However, in reality it was to keep Hitler happy with the United States, England and France so he would not invade their nations. In a real sense it merely bought them time to get ready for Hitler coming but they did not have enough military readiness to accomplish that. In a way it gave them a false sense of security.


Was appeasement a mistake for Britain after World War 1?

Yes, the appeasement policy of Britain helped Hitler gain the stronghold over Europe and ended with the blitzing of London. The first aggressive land grabs of Hitler were allowed, since British and other leaders felt it was something he had a right to do, and if they ignored it, he would stop. He didn't, and by the time they entered the war after Hitler's invasion of Poland, he had gained too much power to be immediately stopped.


What were the positive effects of European appeasement in World War 2?

NONE. If the policy of appeasement had not been followed by Britain and France, WWII might not have happened. If either country had been willing to react militarily, then Hitler would have been in trouble. Hitler's generals were looking for any pretext to attempt to remove him. If his gambles in remilitarizing the Rhineland, or the Anschluss with Austria or the Sudetenland crisis or the Czech crisis had been answered like they answered Poland, then Hitler's world would have collapsed. The policy of appeasement led to WWII and all of the death and destruction from this war can be laid at it's doorstep Two unintended positive effects of appeasement were as follows: 1. It provided time for countries like Great Britain to prepare. Despite chamberlains appeasement he also hedged his bets by rearming. Had he confronted Hitler at Munich the only thing he might succeeded in doing is starting a war totally unprepared. Other European countries did nothing. Oddly enough the two traditionally neutral countries, Sweden and Switzerland also prepared. In fact when Hitler invaded Poland Switzerland and Sweden, along with France and Britain mobilized. The rest of Europe naively declared their neutrality. 2. By pursuing appeasement and then having it shoved in their face, eliminated the pacifists as a political force, at least in Britain. After Poland was invaded almost all of Britain knew Hitler had to be confronted. In a democracy a leader cannot underestimate the need to unify the country under a common purpose. This is something President Bush has failed to do in Iraq. Notice the rest of Europe didn’t do much of anything, hoping they would be left out of any fighting. They were not spared.