yes reparations were required
Charles dawes
Germany was expected to pay for damages resulting from World War I. The Treaty of Versailles, signed in 1919, placed heavy reparations on Germany, holding it primarily responsible for the war. These reparations were intended to compensate the Allied nations for the destruction and economic losses suffered during the conflict. The burdensome payments contributed to economic instability in Germany and were a factor in the rise of political extremism in the following years.
The Germans Started WW2 a few years later!
After World War I, England did not directly pay reparations, as it was one of the victorious Allied powers. However, the UK faced significant financial burdens due to war expenditures, with estimates of total war costs exceeding £3 billion at the time. Instead of paying reparations, the UK and its allies imposed reparations on Germany through the Treaty of Versailles, which aimed to compensate for war damages. Ultimately, the economic consequences of the war had lasting impacts on the UK’s economy.
Germany
Germany
Germany
Germany
Germany.
No. France was one of the major winners, and the winners don't pay reparations. The country that had to pay high reparations was Germany.
this country was broken into a few smaller countries and ordered to pay reparations for the damage caused by the war
== == There were no war reparations after the Second World War and Britain, being one of the winners, certainly would not have had to pay them if there had been.
Yes!
Reparations
Germany
The Treaty of Versailles