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If you bought the house before the marriage it would still be considered your separate property, however, she could probably recover her contribution to the equity.
"Martial" or "marital"? Martial implies the marriage was so bad that the military had to be called in to keep the peace. Marital is what you are referring to...
Typically the spouse inherits the entire estate unless there are children involved.
The laws of intestacy in Louisiana are unique. If you die without a will in Louisiana the laws of intestacy will distribute your property to your spouse and children. The division of the property depends on whether the property is separate property or community property. Community property is property that was acquired by a married couple during their marriage. Separate property is property that was inherited, owned before marriage, or gifts. Generally, the spouse receives no separate property. It passes to your children or grandchildren. The surviving spouse receives none of the decedent's share of the community property if the couple has children. Your community property will go first to your children. If you do not have children, your spouse will receive your community property. This comment addresses spouse and children only. For the full picture of intestacy in Louisiana an internet search will provide numerous articles and sites that discuss the details.
In real estate the principle of contribution is that the value of a component of property depends upon its contribution to the value of the whole property. The cost of an improvement does not necessarily equal the value the component adds to the property.
The adjective form for the noun residence is residential, for example residential property.
Need a little more detail & also the rules are not the same in all States. Is this a divorce situation? How long has the property been owned? Was the property acquired before or after the marriage? Ws the property purchased or inherited? Is this a primary residence or a rental property? What State do you live in?
In my opinion yes. As long as your personal property is stored in a location that is not a residence or could be considered a residence.
If the man was already divorced legally , then the wife of four years and her children will get his property.
Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.Property owned prior to marriage is not considered community property unless it was converted to community property by some action by the parties.
No, community property refers only to that property that is gained during the marriage. However, if you use community property or income earned during the marriage to continue mortgage payments, to improve, etc, then a portion of it does become community property.
Capital Contributions can be made up of contributed cash, property (any contribution of property must include a description of the property), promissory note or services rendered. Capital contributions can also consist of other obligations to be contributed by Limited Partners(s) in the future, cash, property (any contribution of property must include a description of the property) and services to be performed. Typically, the General Partner's Capital Contribution may be a nominal amount, such as one percent (1%) of the total Capital Contribution. Also, the General Partner's Capital Contribution may consist of future services.