Reaffirmation does apply to Chapter 13 bankruptcies, and the benefit of filing a Chapter 13 case is that you are usually able to retain your home (as opposed to a Chapter 7 case, where all of your assets are normally sold). Customarily, the debtor and lender enter into an agreement within the bankruptcy to cure the arrearages over a period of time while the debtor continues to make monthly payments. That said, if the debtor falls behind on the payments, the lender can petition the court for relief from the automatic stay and proceed to foreclosure. A lender may never foreclose if the mortgage payments are current and the debtor is in compliance with the other provisions of the mortgage. If your lender is foreclosing and you believe that you have made your payments on time (or adequately cured the arrearage in the bankruptcy), then you should contact an attorney immediately.
Reaffirmation is only used in chapter 7 bankruptcy. If you kept paying your mortgage every month and don't owe any arrears then they won't foreclose.
Your mortgage should have been included in your chapter 7 discharge. If it was- then you are no longer liable for the mortgage, but the lender can still foreclose on the property. If the mortgage was not included- then why wasnt it included.
Nothing happens, the lien still exists- and the 2nd lender can still foreclose if you stoip making payments. The bigger worry is why you would WANT to reaffirm a mortgage debt!
No. You can only foreclose a mortgage if you own it as evidenced by documentation that was recorded in the land records.No. You can only foreclose a mortgage if you own it as evidenced by documentation that was recorded in the land records.No. You can only foreclose a mortgage if you own it as evidenced by documentation that was recorded in the land records.No. You can only foreclose a mortgage if you own it as evidenced by documentation that was recorded in the land records.
What happens to a mortgage after bankruptcy depends on whether or not the debt is reaffirmed. If the mortgage is reaffirmed the homeowner continues to pay it as if the bankruptcy had not been filed, since the debt has not been discharged. If the debt is not reaffirmed, what happens to the mortgage depends on the policies of the individual lender.
30 days generally will not cause a foreclosure. If the debt continues to be 30 days in arrears over months are foreclosure will happen at some point.
no, not if it is a 1st mortgage. because of the mortgage tax relief act of 2007
If your mortgage company requires a reaffirmation agreement but you did not do it based on the advice of your lawyer, talk to the mortgage company and explain to them why you didn't do it. The lawyer should contact them for you and explain that these documents are not needed. In some cases it can be easier just to sign the reaffirmation agreement as the mortgage company is requesting.
Mortgage lenders foreclose when there is a default on a mortgage.
It's my understanding that when you sign a reaffirmation agreement, you then become liable once again for the loan. If the home was included in the bankruptcy, but no reaffirmation agreement was signed, you can "walk away" from the home at any time after the discharge and you're not liable. I've been told that the mortgage company will report it as a foreclosure though.
Yes. The bank could foreclose and take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage.
His estate will be responsible for the mortgage. Assuming the wife is not on the deed, if the mortgage isn't paid the bank will foreclose and take possession of the property covered by the mortgage. If the wife is on the deed and she consented to the mortgage the bank can foreclose. If she is on the deed and did not consent to the mortgage then the bank had a defective title and may not be able to foreclose.
A reaffirmed mortgage is one that was included in a bankruptcy but the homeowners get to keep the home instead of losing it back to the bank. The payments and length of loan may be adjusted.