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How does shakespeare employ Aristotles theory on tragedy in King Lear?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
There is no evidence that Shakespeare had ever heard of Aristotle's Poetics and considerable evidence that he had not. The evidence that he had not is that virtually none of his tragedies pay attention to Aristotle's strictures on what tragedy should be about.
For example, King Lear changes from an autocrat, to a madman, to someone who is serenely centred to someone who is shattered by grief. Consider what Aristotle thought were essential to tragic heroes--that they be good (is Lear's treatment of Cordelia and Kent good?), appropriate (is the spectacle of a king stripping himself naked and acting like a child appropriate?), and consistent. King Lear is none of these, and particularly not consistent.
The Shakespearean tragic hero who most complies with Aristotle's ideas is Timon in Timon of Athens; the one who least complies is Hamlet. Thank heaven Shakespeare knew nothing of Aristotle.
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
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The originator of the theory of tragedy was?
Aristotle
Aristotle was the originator of theory of?
tragedy
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The ancient Greek philosopher originated the theory of?
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The gist of this conspriracy theory is that William Shakespeare did not pen all his plays himself. If or even how this can be proved is doubtful.
What is aristotle's theory of tragedy?
Aristotle's theory of tragedy, outlined in his work "Poetics," asserts that tragedy is characterized by the depiction of a protagonist's fall from greatness to ruin due to a tragic flaw (hamartia). Tragedy invokes feelings of catharsis in the audience, purging them of negative emotions through pity and fear. Aristotle also emphasizes the importance of unity of plot, character, and theme in creating a successful tragedy.
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Copernicus believed the planetary motions were due to:
Why was Shakespeare named Shakespeare?
Some people think that Shakespeare is Italian and that his real name: Michelangelo Florio Crollalanza was later translated to Shakespeare. Crolla= to shake or break, Lanza( lancia )= spear, so Crollalanza = Shakespeare, but it's just a theory, it's never been proven. The more acceptable theory is that he took his father's surname, and because his father's surname was Shakespeare, he had the same surname, just like virtually everyone else in England then and now.
Why was Aristotles theory incorrect?
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Aristotle's theory of drama, outlined in his work "Poetics," emphasizes the concept of catharsis, or the purging of emotions through pity and fear experienced by the audience. He also discusses the importance of plot, character, and diction in creating a successful tragedy. Aristotle believed that a good tragedy should evoke feelings of pity and fear in the audience, leading to a sense of emotional release.
Shakespeare invent the play Romeo and Juliet?
Shakespeare certainly wrote the play Romeo and Juliet, unless you subscribe to the theory that someone else wrote all of his plays under his name. Shakespeare did not invent the plot of Romeo and Juliet, but then Shakespeare did not invent any of his plots.
