Yes, as with most retail contracts, once you the borrower has defaulted on the contract, the full balance owed is due. The lender no longer is bound to take partial payments of any kind. The lender may elect to reaffirm the contract, but in doing so, it is in the best interest of all parties to resign paper.
Not as long as the payments are current and have remained so.
As long as the contract is in default, the lender can repossess the collateral. Which would mean no? correct?? If the payments have became current the loan would no longer be in default? I am I right or wrong? You are wrong if the bank has already sent you a "notice of right to cure default" demanding full payment of the loan. Then they may (probably will)consider all the caught-up payments as part of that full payment and you have not satisfied the default. I guess it depend what state you are in, because I know in MD you can have the right ot get the car back one time, by simply becoming current with your payments and any of the repo fees.
It will hurt your credit but also will show you made catch up payments and are current. So if you were to buy another car in the future and they ask about it they will still lend you money for the car but you may have to put more money for a down payment.
There will be no affect to the house with the current payments. Even if they are with the same lender. But it will hurt your credit badly...at least for 4 years.
You have to get current on your payment, plus the repo fees, plus the repo agency storage fees. And you have to do it before the lienholder gets impatient and auctions off the car - once that's done, you're still responsible for the remaining balance.
Technically you breached the contract with the lender if you did not make payments in 6 months. They actually have the right to NOT accept further payments from you. So yes, it can still be repossessed.
You have to make whatever payments are required as determined by the BK analysis, which should be lower than trying to make all your normal payments.
The court still has to order the payments, but the court can go back in time, to when the child was born for example, and "start" your payments from back then.
Don't understand what you mean by the phrase, "...voluntary have it returned..." However, as long as the primary indebted party is current in their payments there would be no reason for the loan company to contact you for payments.
Yes, it's still current. It is also still the best choice available on the market today. There are other choices, but this is the right one to go with.
Anyone has the right to sue if they feel wronged. But for an attorney to sue a current or former client when the client is actually making some form of regular payments would be very unlikely. Unless the amount of the payment was just out of proportion low, like paying $10 a month on a $7,500 bill.
That option is up to the LENDER. Call the lender ASAP for more info.