Of course not. The owner of the real estate must execute the mortgage. If the "co-borrower" is not also an owner then they are simply a "co-signer". In other words they have promised to pay off a loan for land they do not own. If the primary borrower defaults on their mortgage payments the co-signer will be held personally responsible for paying off the mortgage even though they don't own the land.
Of course not. The owner of the real estate must execute the mortgage. If the "co-borrower" is not also an owner then they are simply a "co-signer". In other words they have promised to pay off a loan for land they do not own. If the primary borrower defaults on their mortgage payments the co-signer will be held personally responsible for paying off the mortgage even though they don't own the land.
Of course not. The owner of the real estate must execute the mortgage. If the "co-borrower" is not also an owner then they are simply a "co-signer". In other words they have promised to pay off a loan for land they do not own. If the primary borrower defaults on their mortgage payments the co-signer will be held personally responsible for paying off the mortgage even though they don't own the land.
Of course not. The owner of the real estate must execute the mortgage. If the "co-borrower" is not also an owner then they are simply a "co-signer". In other words they have promised to pay off a loan for land they do not own. If the primary borrower defaults on their mortgage payments the co-signer will be held personally responsible for paying off the mortgage even though they don't own the land.
Of course not. The owner of the real estate must execute the mortgage. If the "co-borrower" is not also an owner then they are simply a "co-signer". In other words they have promised to pay off a loan for land they do not own. If the primary borrower defaults on their mortgage payments the co-signer will be held personally responsible for paying off the mortgage even though they don't own the land.
You can't. You must refinance.
get a job u lazy heffer
You can refinance without the spouse but you will need their consent to do so. If the spouse is on the title of the home, the answer is "no". If the spouse is on the existing mortgage the answer is "no". If the spouse is not on title you need to indicate on the loan application that you are married, and if you don't is fraud. At the time of closing she/he would have to be present. Inform you spouse of your actions.
No. The loan must be paid off and you must refinance without the co-signer.
The best way to refinance a home loan rate is to obtain another loan without having a mortgage. In this way in the event of inability of payment, the customer will be insured and not lose own home.
No. Your mother would need to consent to the mortgage by signing it. The lender will discover her interest when it has the title checked and will insist that she signs the mortgage.
You can't. You must refinance.
get a job u lazy heffer
Yes, you can sell a house without spousal consent it their name isn't on the mortgage. If their name is on the mortgage, you will need their consent.
A primary owner cannot refinance a car loan without consent from the co-owner. Both parties must agree to the action.
You can refinance without the spouse but you will need their consent to do so. If the spouse is on the title of the home, the answer is "no". If the spouse is on the existing mortgage the answer is "no". If the spouse is not on title you need to indicate on the loan application that you are married, and if you don't is fraud. At the time of closing she/he would have to be present. Inform you spouse of your actions.
Refinance the lending agreement without the person's being a participant.
I think if you can effort for it you can have a refinance without borrowing the money.
Yes it usually does. Most often you can not refinance unless you pull both mortgages into one and you can't do that without equity. My parents have this problem now.
No. The loan must be paid off and you must refinance without the co-signer.
I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.
yes we did in April of 2007. We have numerous of questions without answers, can you help?