Did the English government prolong the suffering of Irish Catholics during the potato famine by withholding assistance?

Two reasons: 1st control 2nd,Beef,most of the land was owned or controled by the brits, the profit from the sale of meat was greater than the rents

More so then that, at no point during the famine was Ireland not self sufficent in food production. Unless u wanted to be thrown of your land and be without any hope then you had to pay a sort of rent via crops (normally grain). This was used to mantain prices in England so as to continue its industrialisation. The Turks donated food to us before the English and were even asked not to for fear of it making the british government look bad.

Just to think technically we were the same country as the Brits (the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland) yet they left us to starve while they exported our agricultural produce for their own profits. Had a similar event happened in England would there have been the same slow response from the British Government? I think not