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You have to define what a Muslim land is. Moroccans claim that the Spanish cities of Ceuta and Melilla are part of the territorial integrity of Morocco. Spain responds that it has controlled both of those cities since 1497, before the creation of the Alouite Dynasty in Morocco (in the 1600s) and before even the annexation of Navarre (in 1515). As a result, they are historically Spanish lands, not Moroccan lands. (Whether Moroccan lands are Muslim lands is itself a more involved question of how you "Islamify" a piece of land, but let's avoid that for the moment.)
Historically, Spain had colonies in Morocco (north Morocco, ruled from Tetouan, and south Morocco, ruled from Ifni) and controlled Western Sahara (called Rio de Oro at that time). Both of these areas have majority-Muslim populations. Spain handed over control of north Morocco and most of South Morocco in 1956 to Morocco at France's request. Spain gave up Ifni itself after the Ifni War with Morocco and international pressure in 1969. Spain gave Rio de Oro independence in 1975 after which it was promptly annexed by Morocco in the "Green March".
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How did the Spaniards invade the Philippines?
because they wanted to rule the phil. and to have the wealth of phil.
Which river is completely within the Muslim lands of 661?
the river that is completely within the Muslim lands of 661 is the Tigris River.
A state that conquers other lands and then rules them is called?
invade
What lands did Viking invade?
Ireland, Scotland, England, France.
Does Spanish invade Muslims?
The question makes no sense. Muslims are people; they cannot be invaded save for by microorganisms. If you mean to ask: "Do Spaniards invade Muslim lands?" then you have to define what a Muslim land is. Moroccans claim that the Spanish cities of Ceuta and Melilla are part of the territorial integrity of Morocco. Spain responds that it has controlled both of those cities since 1497, before the creation of the Alouite Dynasty in Morocco (in the 1600s) and before even the annexation of Navarre (in 1515). As a result, they are historically Spanish lands, not Moroccan lands. (Whether Moroccan lands are Muslim lands is itself a more involved question of how you "Islamify" a piece of land, but let's avoid that for the moment.) Historically, Spain had colonies in Morocco (north Morocco, ruled from Tetouan, and south Morocco, ruled from Ifni) and controlled Western Sahara (called Rio de Oro at that time). Both of these areas have majority-Muslim populations. Spain handed over control of north Morocco and most of South Morocco in 1956 to Morocco at France's request. Spain gave up Ifni itself after the Ifni War with Morocco and international pressure in 1969. Spain gave Rio de Oro independence in 1975 after which it was promptly annexed by Morocco in the "Green March".
Did the Muslim incursion into Spain have anything to do with the crusades?
Sort of, but ultimately not really. Empires invade other lands and spread influence; its what they do. Muslim incursion into Spain certainly didn't help European views of the middle east, but the crusades would probably have happened anyway even if there were no incursions into Europe.
Who were the Aztec's enemies?
The aztecs were fighting pandas in rainbow unicorn lands
How did Europeans gain control of Muslim lands?
Through imperialism.Many Muslims in Muslim land joined hands with Europeans.Europeans+Muslims ruled those lands.
How did the Umayyad's bring new lands into the Muslim empire?
They began to conquer new lands.
How did the Umayyad bring new lands into the Muslim empire?
They began to conquer new lands.
How many years did the Spaniards invade the Philippines?
The Spaniards invades and took control of the Philippines from 1565 to 1898 which is a total of 333 year. However, Ferdinand Magellan had come to Philippines in 1521.
What was happening in Muslim lands that led European christians there?
Before the land was Muslim it was Christian.
