By giving them to an American steel company to then give to the british so he never broke a law doing it this way.
The Destroyers for Bases Agreement was reached in September of 1940. Roosevelt sent destroyer ships to Churchill in exchange for the use of rent free British bases.
British overseas bases.
British overseas military bases.
Britain operated on a 'lease-lend' policy with the USA to supply military vehicles and equipment; that is, an agreement for the UK to pay off the cost on a kind of hire-purchase basis in instalments once the war was over. This was carried out, and only completed about 15 years ago.
look in ur textbook. yeah chp 17 ww2 and its aftermathits not in my textbook...
Anyone with any knowledge about the Second World War would give a resounding YES response to that question.
Britain needed the battleships to convoy goods across the atlantic They were not "given" to Britain at all, but transferred in exchange for use of British bases. They were not battleships but old destroyers from the latter years of WW1. On average they took 18 months in a dockyard to make them seaworthy enough for convoy protection.
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on you tube
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They weren't battleships, they were obsolete and redundant World War 1 destroyers, and they weren't 'given', they were lent under the Lend/Lease Agreement and had to be either returned or paid for at the end of hostilities.
why did president franklin d Roosevelt give Britain 50 battleships