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Because angels aren't the "Sons of God."

The "Sons of God" refer to the "christian men" of back then.

Answer:

Adam [one of the two sexes God made] is called "the son of God":

"...Enos, which was the son of Seth, which was the son of Adam, which was THE SON OF GOD." (Luke 3:38)

By extension, that makes Adam's sons God's sons, also. And these "sons of God" came in unto "the other sex God made"... Adam and Eve's "daughters."

There's not one word about "angels" in this.

Answer:

In Genesis 6:2, the sons of God are thought to have been either fallen angels , to which there may be reference in 2 Peter 2:4 and Jude 6, or leaders in the Sethite families who intermarried with godless descendants of Cain . The problem with the fallen angels (also referred to as demons in some circles) theory is that if they could produce real bodies and have real sex with real women, that would invalidate Jesus' argument for the authenticity of His resurrection. Jesus assured His disciples that a "spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see I have" (Luke 24:39). To say that fallen angels or demons can create bodies with DNA and fertile sperm is to say that demons have creative power. If they could have sex with women in ancient times , we would have no assurance they could not do so in modern times. Nor would we have any guarantee that the people we encounter every day are fully human. Furthermore, Genesis 1 makes it clear that all of God's living creations are designed to reproduce "according to their own kinds."

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Q: If Angels are sexless beings how then can the 'sons of God came in unto the daughters of men and they bare children to them' Genesis 6 v 4?
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