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In general, states limit the right of a plaintiff to enforce a contract for real property rights (including a lease), unless there is a document signed by the defendant. Your particular state may interpret a lease as a contract that could be enforced if the husband actually acted as if there were a lease, even if he didn't personally sign it, but there could be complicated issues of fact and evidence worth discussing with an attorney.

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16y ago
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14y ago

No. The lease would be void.

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11y ago

Yes

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Q: If a husband wife are named on a lease and the wife is the only one to sign the lease is the husband obligated to the contract?
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