A charge off just means a bank has considered a bad debt. They still have the right to collect on it. Now it is tough for a second mortgage company or bank to foreclose, reason being that there are in second position. They can start but if foreclosure is followed through with. The first mortgage is paid first and they get what is left over. Remember the house has to be sold etc. Many times they will sell your debt of to a less scrupilous collector. If they do start contact your first mortgage lender immediately. They may have options. Hope this helps.
Yes. Any lien holder can initiate foreclosure proceedings when their lien is in default.
Yes. The second is subordinate to the first mortgage and therefore is at greater risk. If equity exists, the 2nd mortgage holder may receive payment for the debt when a senior lender forecloses. If there is not, then their lien on the property is wiped out and they must pursue the borrower in another fashion (such as a lawsuit). If the 2nd mortgage lender does not want the 1st lender to foreclose, they may choose to pay the 1st mortgage current before the foreclosure proceeds and attempt to collect or foreclose themselves.
No, not as long as they didn't co-sign the mortgage. However, if the parents have died and their property is subject to a mortgage the lender will foreclose on the property if the mortgage isn't paid. If the heirs want to keep or sell the property they must keep the mortgage payments current.
No but if a home owner is behind on payments and needs a loan mod or short sale approval, proof is available at RestReport.com
Yes, if your equity in the house is greater than the exemption you can use and you cannot pay the trustee the difference, or if there is no mortgage on the house and its value is more than the exemptions. If you are current with your mortgage when you file and get behind on your mortgage during the chapter 7, the mortgagee can foreclose. Consult a local bankruptcy lawyer.
Yes. Any lien holder can initiate foreclosure proceedings when their lien is in default.
Yes. The second is subordinate to the first mortgage and therefore is at greater risk. If equity exists, the 2nd mortgage holder may receive payment for the debt when a senior lender forecloses. If there is not, then their lien on the property is wiped out and they must pursue the borrower in another fashion (such as a lawsuit). If the 2nd mortgage lender does not want the 1st lender to foreclose, they may choose to pay the 1st mortgage current before the foreclosure proceeds and attempt to collect or foreclose themselves.
No, not as long as they didn't co-sign the mortgage. However, if the parents have died and their property is subject to a mortgage the lender will foreclose on the property if the mortgage isn't paid. If the heirs want to keep or sell the property they must keep the mortgage payments current.
No but if a home owner is behind on payments and needs a loan mod or short sale approval, proof is available at RestReport.com
Yes, if your equity in the house is greater than the exemption you can use and you cannot pay the trustee the difference, or if there is no mortgage on the house and its value is more than the exemptions. If you are current with your mortgage when you file and get behind on your mortgage during the chapter 7, the mortgagee can foreclose. Consult a local bankruptcy lawyer.
Not likely. Think of it this way: If you pay your bills every month, does it matter where the money comes from? They can't do anything until you stop paying.
There are many online options for comparing mortgages from different banks. You can compare mortgage rates on websites such as Compare Mortgage Rates, Bankrate, and Mortgage Rates Current.
Reaffirmation does apply to Chapter 13 bankruptcies, and the benefit of filing a Chapter 13 case is that you are usually able to retain your home (as opposed to a Chapter 7 case, where all of your assets are normally sold). Customarily, the debtor and lender enter into an agreement within the bankruptcy to cure the arrearages over a period of time while the debtor continues to make monthly payments. That said, if the debtor falls behind on the payments, the lender can petition the court for relief from the automatic stay and proceed to foreclosure. A lender may never foreclose if the mortgage payments are current and the debtor is in compliance with the other provisions of the mortgage. If your lender is foreclosing and you believe that you have made your payments on time (or adequately cured the arrearage in the bankruptcy), then you should contact an attorney immediately.
To ensure that you officially release the specific mortgage that has been paid off or satisfied, a discharge of mortgage, or "release of mortgage" will require the following informtion: Original mortgage information Original lender Date Original principal amount Recording information (County, and book/page or Document No#) Borrower's name Property Addresss The release of mortgage needs to be signed by the current mortgage holder of record. The person signing the release needs to have the discharge executed in front of a Notary Public.
The current mortgage fixed rates depend on which bank your mortgage is with and how long your mortgage is for. A Wells Fargo 30 year mortgage is 3.75%.
Yes. Or the lender could choose to file for the automatic stay to be lifted and if granted proceed with foreclosure action before the BK is discharged. _________________________________________ If a person is current on the payments, and stays current, there is NO violation of the mortgage contract, and the lender would not foreclose. Miss a payment or two, and it will be treated as any other delinquent account. But until then, the status quo is maintained, the Chapter 7 not relevant.
The average mortgage rate is different for each state. Mortgage rates also vary based on the length of the mortgage and the person's credit score that is applying for the mortgage. To estimate the average mortgage rate for your state you could visit mortgagecalculator.org.