The person's whose name is on the mortgage and who pays said mortgage is irrelevant. The issue of ownership is decided by how the property deed is titled. The partitioning of marital property can be very complicated if the issue was not resolved in the dissolution terms of the divorce, or the state default laws do not apply The only recourse might be filing a motion in the appropriate court for a partitioning of the property. It would be advisable for the party involved to obtain legal advice on the laws of the state in which the property is located before taking any action. Most attorneys offer a free or minimal fee consultation. Free attorney referral services are offered on the American Bar Association's website http://www.abanet.org
Not without the consent of your lender, no. You could sell your house to her, but then your mortgage company would expect to be paid off; you can't sell her your house for less than you owe on it without making up the difference yourself.
can i get aloan to fix my house without taken a second mortgage out
By definition a mortgage is secured on the deeds of the house. They will have the deed (or officially have their name legally registered for the property) if they have given you a mortgage.
no
Sorry we do not understand what you are asking. A bank lends money to finance your purchase of a house - the loan made is secured on the house and is called a mortgage. While the mortgage is not paid off the bank actually own the house and you can not raise more money secured against it without the bank's permission. There is no such thing as a "reverse mortgage".
Yes, you can sell a house without spousal consent it their name isn't on the mortgage. If their name is on the mortgage, you will need their consent.
Not without the consent of your lender, no. You could sell your house to her, but then your mortgage company would expect to be paid off; you can't sell her your house for less than you owe on it without making up the difference yourself.
I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.I assume the private mortgage was granted to the seller who became the mortgagee. Yes, the mortgagee can sell her rights under the mortgage but she cannot change its terms without the written consent of the mortgagor.
If mother and son are indeed tenants in common then each has the right to the use and possession of the whole property. Son cannot mortgage or sell the property without the consent of mother. Mother cannot mortgage or sell the property without consent of son. Both are equal owners.
neither house of congress may adjourn without the consent of the other house.
can i get aloan to fix my house without taken a second mortgage out
If both names are on the deed, then both signatures are required. If the spouse has signed a quit claim deed to the home, then the other does not need consent.
No
By definition a mortgage is secured on the deeds of the house. They will have the deed (or officially have their name legally registered for the property) if they have given you a mortgage.
No, you will your parents' consent.
YES, BUT ONLY WITH YOUR CONSENT
checks and balances