If money or services have changed hands such that they may be construed to have been "rent", a tacit contract has been formed. Albeit considered a lease, renter's agreement or any other kind of contract, it is in fact a legal covenant. In the case of renter's agreements, tenancy law or residential law (anmes vary by state) come into play. The one thing all of the states' residential laws have in common is that the way you remove an undesirable tenant from your propery is called an Eviction, and an Eviction must follow due process of law. Because evictions are "streamlined" (i.e. made very fast for the landlord's benefit), the landlord has an increased burden of following due process most carefully. Put another way, the courts are willing to speed up due process to the breaking point in favor of the landlord. In exchange for this, the landlord must dot every I and cross every T. Removal of the tenant without due process of law (e.g. "creative" evictions) often carry very stiff penalties including criminal charges. In summary then, the answer to your question is NO. The landlord must instigate and follow through a formal eviction.
James C. Hauser has written: 'Florida residential landlord--tenant manual' -- subject(s): Landlord and tenant 'Texas residential landlord-tenant law' -- subject(s): Landlord and tenant
NO
That has nothing to do with the tenant.
If you are not paying rent - yes, absolutely the landlord can. If you aren't paying rent, your "refusal" has no legs to stand on.
The tenant should stop paying rent whenever the governmental agency to whom the taxes are owed threatens to foreclose or repossess the property. In that case, the tenant should demand (in writing) that the landlord pay the delinquent taxes. If the landlord refuses, the tenant should move (again, upon giving written notice to the landlord).
To receover property damage in Florida the landlord must file a suit against the tenant. If the landlord wins he can collect using usual means of collecting on a judgment. If the tenant has property then a lien can be placed on it to satisfy a judgment. But if the lien is on a primary home then he cannot be forced to sell the home per homestead laws.
I can't answer definitely without more information. Basically, if the tenant did something wrong, then the landlord may very well be in a position to sue to be compensated for this wrong.
The possessive forms are landlord's and tenant's; for example:The tenant's apartment is the best one in the landlord's building.
Can't understand the question. You mean, he never got caught up?
Any damages caused to a building which is under lease and which are directly caused by the tenant are normally deducted from the bond if necessary. Otherwise, the tenant is responsible for paying for the repairs, but it is the landlord/homeowner who must get the repairs done (they then pass the bill on).
A 1099 is a miscellaneous income tax form. Unless the tenant was an employee of the landlord, there would never be a need for a tax form.
Generally there is no point in suing a property manager for not collecting rent. It should be noted that the tenant is responsible for paying his rent on time. It is not the responsibility for the landlord to collect the rent. If the landlord does not collect rent and the tenant should send it to the landlord by mail or in person.