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The answer is most likely "no". The relationship which gives rise to the power to foreclose is between the lender or seller and the buyer or buyers, not between joint buyers. The relationship between buyers, or joint owners will determine among them how to enforce joint payment of the mortgage. Is there a contract between the buyers? Is it written or oral? If oral is there a documented practice between the buyers? How this is resolved will depend on what state the property is located in.

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โˆ™ 2007-07-06 19:17:44
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Q: In undivided interest of property if all are on the note and 1 decides to stop paying their share of the note Can the others foreclose on that person and take their share away from them?
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