The answer is most likely "no". The relationship which gives rise to the power to foreclose is between the lender or seller and the buyer or buyers, not between joint buyers. The relationship between buyers, or joint owners will determine among them how to enforce joint payment of the mortgage. Is there a contract between the buyers? Is it written or oral? If oral is there a documented practice between the buyers? How this is resolved will depend on what state the property is located in.
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Nope, that was just a rumor. She isn't ready to have kids yet but if she decides to she will be an amazing mother
No, unless it is a matter of domestic violence and then the abused spouse can get a court order banning the abuser from the home until the issue has been settled. In most cases, married couples even when the residence is in the name of only one spouse are presumed to be equally entitled to the use of the property. Which is one of the reasons for having to file a dissolution of marriage petition when a couple decides to end their relationship.
Yes, they do. Frankie does sweet gestures for her, and she finally decides to take him back. He even tries to propose 3 times to her, but fails to ask with obstacles getting in the way. He plans to wait to get married to her, eventually.
No.
It would be best but if one decides to build anyway and it is permenantly placed, the structure would fall under the interest that one has. ie if he owns 25% interest, that's all he owns of the structure and all he will get for it when/if sold. I don't think he can use the land as collatteral either. Not an attorney and not to be used as legal advice
Everything. You must divulge all of your interest in anything you own and everything you owe. the court decides what can be done with it, if anything.
One will refinance a mortgage for interest only if one decides it is the right time to do so. It is the loan taker who decides whether it is the right time or not.
If you own the property, yes, otherwise whoever owns it decides. You cannot, however, park it on public property.
I believe that it is the Federal reserve who decides on the interest policy, as well as the money supply
The lender will require that you pay off the tax delinquencies with some of the proceeds of the loan if it decides to approve the loan. It cannot acquire clear title to the property if there are property tax liens.The lender will require that you pay off the tax delinquencies with some of the proceeds of the loan if it decides to approve the loan. It cannot acquire clear title to the property if there are property tax liens.The lender will require that you pay off the tax delinquencies with some of the proceeds of the loan if it decides to approve the loan. It cannot acquire clear title to the property if there are property tax liens.The lender will require that you pay off the tax delinquencies with some of the proceeds of the loan if it decides to approve the loan. It cannot acquire clear title to the property if there are property tax liens.
Property management company decides all the real estate business listing according to market value.
That depends entirely on how the property came into being. Generally speaking the local school district (normally) owns the property and decides what to do with it; unless of course this property was bought, leased, or financed through the state which would mean the state owns at least some interest in the property and maybe able to overrule the school district in some cases.
It depends....the 2nd mortgage holder can buy out your first mortgage and then foreclose on the entire property , the chances are higher of this happening is the 2nd mortgage is kinda large or if they are held by the same lender. If the 2nd mortgage holder decides not to buy the first mortgage out then typically nothing with happen because the first mortgage holder is in control. The 2nd mortgage cannot foreclose on the first mortgage so keep the first mortgage payments current.If the 2nd does not buyout the first then the lien with remain on the property and you will be require to pay it off if you sell or refinance the property down the road.Mortgage loan officer PAIn Texas the law is: http://www.avvo.com/legal-answers/tx-foreclosure-second-trust-deed-4498.html
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Generally, salvage right belong to the owner of the property, Once you have been compensated for the loss, the property now belongs to the insurer, so they would have the salvage rights to it.