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Assuming you mean Jesus, there isn't such a prophecy in the Christian bible (the New Testament group of writings). In the Hebrew/Jewish bible (Old Testament) there are several prophecies that have been claimed, by certain religious sects, to refer to Jesus but none match the New Testament figure. Usually cited are the predictions of Micah, a Jewish prophet who may have lived in the 8th century BCE (the book of Micah dates to the 5th century BCE). In the book, Micah predicts a military leader will be born in Bethlehem. It is for that reason that the author of Matthew changed the figure from "Jesus of Nazareth" (as in the older gospel writings) to "Jesus of Bethlehem", to make it appear to match the Micah prophecy. However Jesus is not considered a military leader and is it unlikely that Jews during the time of Micah would prophecize a "ruler" who never actually went on to rule a tribe of Israel. Given the multitude of convoluted story threads between all the writings (it's a very large group of writings and was written over hundreds of years by as many authors in many places), it wouldn't be a stretch to try to make several fit but the answer is that there are none that actually match.

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Q: In which book of the Bible is the prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin?
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How did peter influence the development of Christianity as a new religion?

According to the bible, Judas and Peter were two different people that both betrayed Jesus, fulfilling the prophecy that Jesus would be denied.


How did Peter influence the development of Christianity as as new religion?

According to the bible, Judas and Peter were two different people that both betrayed Jesus, fulfilling the prophecy that Jesus would be denied.


What about the prophecy Luke 2 34 35 which told virgin Mary that sword shall pierce her soul?

It ment that jesus would suffer and die , like nails were usedand spears.


What is the mathematical probability of all prophecies coming to fulfillment about Jesus?

To answer this we would need to know how many prophecies were fulfilled. If there were not really any prophecies, then the mathematical probability could be considered 100 per cent, because no prophecy went unfulfilled ( or 0 per cent because none was fulfilled - it is indeterminate).In fact, there was no genuine prophecy about Jesus in the Old Testament. The most popular supposed prophecy is Isaiah 7:14. A reference to this can be found in Matthew's Gospel at 1:22-23. Matthew was looking for a biblical reference he could use to prove that Jesus was prophesied to be born of a virgin. However, he relied on the Septuagint, an early, flawed Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible. The Septuagint incorrectly translated Isaiah 7:14 to say that a virgin would conceive and bear a child. The correct translation would have been "the young woman", and the young woman in question did have a child a few verses later in Isaiah. The author of the Gospel of Matthew relied on this mistranslation to show that it was prophesied that Jesus would be born of a virgin. Every supposed prophecy of Jesus can be shown not to have been intended as such by the original author. It is only pious Christianity that seeks to prove otherwise.


whose words were fulfilled when the birth of Jesus took place?

A:There is no prophecy of the birth of Jesus anywhere in the Bible. However, Matthew's Gospel says that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy that Jesus would be born of a virgin, and we should consider that. Matthew relies on the Septuagint, a flawed early Greek translation of the Hebrew scriptures. Although not actually mentioning Jesus or Mary, the Septuagint does say: "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel."However, what the prophet Isaiah actually wrote in the original Hebrew was, "Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, the young woman shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call his name Immanuel." The 'prophecy' was for a young woman about whom Isaiah was speaking and about a child to be called Immanuel. The young woman in question did have a child just a few verses later in Isaiah's book, and Isaiah never wrote of a virgin or of the virgin Mary.No one can satisfactorily explain why a reference to a child called Immanuel should be a prophecy of Jesus some six centuries later, but the words of Isaiah are now widely considered to be a prophecy fulfilled by the birth of Jesus. This is now so central to Christian belief that hymns even use 'Immanuel' as an alternative name for Jesus.


What town is the Virgin Mary from?

Mary lived in Nazareth, to fulfill the prophecy he would be a Nazarene.


What prophecy was fulfilled in the birth of Jesus from Virgin Mary?

Having read the entire Bible quite carefully, I can say that I have not seen a single prophecy of the birth of Jesus. That is not to say that, with some imagination and a great deal of faith, some can not produce an alleged prophecy. But such interpretations go against the context and the original intentions of the biblical authors.For example, Matthew, a Greek-speaking Jew, was looking for a biblical reference he could use to prove that Jesus was prophesied to be born of a virgin. The Septuagint (An early translation of the Hebrew Bible into the Greek language) incorrectly translated Isaiah 7:14 to say that a virgin would conceive and bear a child. The correct translation would have been "the young woman", and the young woman in question did have a child a few verses later in Isaiah. The author of the Gospel of Matthew relied on this mistranslation to show that it was prophesied that Jesus would be born of a virgin, although Jesus was not mentioned.Answer:"...the Lord Himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a son, and shall call His name Immanuel." (Isa.7:14)Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When His mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Spirit. Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily. But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying... that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit. And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call His name JESUS: for He shall save His people from their sins. Now all this was done that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying, Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us." (Matt.1:18-23)


On prophecy of Isaiah 7 v 14 was Jesus ever called Immanuel?

Hebrew has a specific word, betulah, for a virgin, and a more general word, `almah, for a young woman. Matthew 1:22-23 used the Septuagint translation of alma in Isaiah 7:14 as "virgin."There are two times the word 'Immanuel' is mentioned in the King James translation of the Bible:-Isa 7:14 So, the Lord Himself shall give you a sign. Behold, the virgin will conceive and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call His name Immanuel.Isa 8:8 And he shall pass through Judah. He shall overflow and go over; he shall reach to the neck. And the stretching out of his wings shall fill the breadth of your land, O Immanuel.However, the word 'Immanuel' means 'God with us', and is translated as such in reference to Jesus in Matthew 1:23:-Mat 1:23 "Behold, the virgin shall conceive in her womb, and will bear a son. And they will call His name Emmanuel," which being interpreted is, God with us. [King James Bible]Mat 1:23 "Behold, the virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son. They shall call his name Immanuel;" which is, being interpreted, "God with us." [WEB Bible]It is the adjunct EL that means "of God", therefore the word Immanuel, Lemuel, Samuel, Gabriel, all means that that person named is 'of god.' Jesus was never called Immanuel therefore this prophecy does not apply to Jesus. Besides the Alma (young girl) mentioned in this prophecy was living at the time the prophecy was made.


Is the name Jesus connected to the name Emmanuel linearly?

----------------------- The only biblical connection between Jesus and the name Emmanuel (or Immanuel) is in Matthew's attempt to show that Isaiah 7:14 was a prophecy that a virgin would conceive, and that virgin would be Mary, mother of Jesus. This is not what Isaiah actually intended to say, because the original Hebrew for Isaiah 7:14 only said that "the young woman" would have a child and would call his name Immanuel, and the young woman did have a child just a few verses later in the Book of Isaiah.


When was isaiahs prophecy fulfilled?

About 700 hundred years earlier Isaiah prophesied that a virgin would give birth to a baby who would save his people. He also told the trial of Jesus . That prophecy has been completely-fulfilled. However, Isaiah made many other prophecies, some of which have been only partially-fulfilled and others not at all.


When did the first fulfillment in the bible start?

The first prophecy that was later fulfilled, or the first fulfilled prophecy? The first prophecy was when God was talking to Eve and said that she would have a descendent, and that He would bruise the serpent's head, and His heal would be bruised. That was fulfilled in Christ's crucifixion. The first prophecy that was fulfilled was the prophecy of the flood to Noah.


Did a virgin give birth in Isaiah's time?

No, a virgin did not give birth in Isaiah's time, nor did Isaiah even prophesy that a virgin would give birth.In the Hebrew Bible, Isaiah 7:14 said that "the young woman" would give birth, and the young woman in question did have a child a few verses later in Isaiah. However, the Septuagint (An early translation of the Hebrew Bible into the Greek language) incorrectly translated this to say that "a virgin" would conceive and bear a child. The author of the Gospel of Matthew relied on this mistranslation to show that it was prophesied that Jesus would be born of a virgin.