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Not necessarily. The party that did sign it can be held to the contract, but only if the other party is relying on that and performed their part of the agreement. And depending upon the course of dealing and what has occurred between the two parties, there may be other reasons to hold that the contract is valid, even if neither of the parties signed it.

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16y ago
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15y ago

That depends on what you did sign. If you signed your name to some sort of an agreement that didn't require the signature of the other party then it would be enforceable, i.e., that you will mow the lawn every week and keep the premises clean as part of your monthly rent. If you are referring to something such as a purchase and sale agreement then both parties must sign.

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Q: Is a contract void if both parties don't sign only one party signed?
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