What evidence is there of appeasement in World War 2?

Answer 1

Britain and France permitted Germany to violate the Treay of Versailles by rearming and by putting troops into the Rheinland. Then they allowed Germany to take over Czheckoslovakia and Austria. At each stage of these aggressions it was hoped that Hitler would be appeased and not want to go any further. he always said, "This is my last territorial demand." But it was never true. he always wanted more. Michael Montagne Firstly, remember this is a contentious issue. Although popular opinion has turned "appeasement" into a word for cowardice, there were strong reasons (however disastrous the consequences )for pursuing it at the time. Appeasement refers to reducing your enemies through negotation. Arguably the biggest appeasement failure before 1939 was over Italy's attack on Abyssinia 1935-36(Ethiopia today). Despite the fact that Mussolini was a fascist, he was as alarmed by German rearmament as GB and France; he was therefore a potential ally against Hitler. However, GB and France, via the League of Nations, imposed sanctions on Italy for her actions. The sanctions were largely ineffective and this is why historians have cited this as an example of appeasement. It can be considered an "appeasement failure" because it succeeded in alienating the Italians, who increasingly saw the British and the French as weak. By October 1936 Italy had effectively been drawn into an ever closer alliance with Germany; therefore the British/French policy had increased, rather than decreased the threat that they faced. Many would of course argue that the greatest failure was Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler over his claim to the Sudenten territory in Czechoslovakia. Hitler was effectively handed this key strip of land ( which contained 3-3.5 million German speakers) with the promise that this would be the last of Germany's territorial claims. This was the infamous Munich Agreement. Infamous, because within 6 months, Hitler had seized the rest of Czechoslovakia. However, some have argued that Chamberlain had no choice. The issue brough Europe within an inch of war and due to faulty intelligence about the strength of the German Luftwaffe, Chamberlain had been told that Britain was ill prepared for war at this time. What many fail to realise is that on returning from Munich, the British government began to make more earnest preparations for the war that of course did come in 1939. Therefore, although appeasement was far from our "finest hour" it can be seen as a pragmatic tactic which delayed war for a year - giving the British and the French more time to prepare for the conflict which they realised was looming

Answer 2

In World War 2 itself Britain and France, having promised support for Poland, didn't even attack Germany from the west. The period from September 1939 to early May 1940 is often referred to as the 'phoney war'.

Answer 3

It is possible that it encouraged increased demands, a "pushing the envelope" syndrome.

Answer 4

it was when France agreed to give up a part of "Czech" that was mainly inhabited by German people to avoid a war with Hitler