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Simply speaking, "appeasement" as used in the context of WWII, means the policy of the "Great Powers" (specifically France and Britain) which prevailed over Germany in WWI of allowing Germany to annex Austria, and then the Sudetenland, and later the remainder of Czechoslavakia, without using force of arms to stop it. Each time, Hitler had basically promised (falsely) that each incursion would be its last. Rather than recognizing Hitler for what he was, the Great Powers wrongly relied on his "word" as reason for not putting armies in the field. They finally saw the light when Germany invaded Poland in 1939.
It is easy to blame the Great Powers now for their inaction. However, one must recall that the mid-1930s were only 20 years removed from the slaughter that was WWI, where France and Britain had lost nearly an entire generation of their male populations. Further, as in WWI, the US was an isolationist nation averse to shedding more blood "over there."
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Who should be held responsible for the failure of the appeasement policy?
Great Britain and France are solely responsible for the appeasement policy and its failure to prevent WWII.
What policy did Britain and France adopt toward Hitler before World War 2?
AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.
How would you describe Neville Chamberlain's policy toward Hitler?
Appeasement
What is Appeasement and how Germany used it to gain power?
appeasement: the policy of avoiding disagreement by accepting an enemy's demands how Germany used it: at the start of WWII, Hitler "tested the waters" by taking little bits of land that he was not supposed to take. using appeasement, the enemies of Germany let him have the land so the could avoid a war (which obviously didnt work) and so Hitler kept taking more and more land and eventually he got so powerful that we couldn't stop him for a long time. =D hope this helped.
By singing the Munich Pact Britain and France agreed to take this policy toward German aggression?
Appeasement.
Who followed the policy of appeasement?
The English before WWII.
Who should be held responsible for the failure of the appeasement policy?
Great Britain and France are solely responsible for the appeasement policy and its failure to prevent WWII.
How successful was appeasement in preventing world war 2?
Not at all. WWII was fought.
What nations intially followed the policy of appeasement before WWII?
Great Britain and France.
Why did Appeasement not work in World War 2?
Answer this question… German leaders would not settle for controlling only parts of the territories they wanted.
What is the policy of giving into Hitler's demands?
Appeasement.
How did the policy of appeasement help to cause WWII?
It only made the axis-powers more and more powerful than they were before. Then, they unleashed it. But 5 years later, failed to keep it.
What was the policy of appeasement in world war 2?
appeasement before world war 2Britain and France was after WWII but Britain and Germany before WWIIAnsweri only know two countries that held an appeasement before war broke out in 1939. these two countries are BRITAIN and GERMANY. i hope that this has helped you with your reasearch.
Why did Britain and France abondon their policy of appeasement?
Appeasement simply didn't work . . . in fact, appeasement made the situation worse.
What policy did Britain and France adopt toward Hitler before World War 2?
AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.
What did appeasement do?
Appeasement is the policy of giving in to the demands of an aggressor to keep the peace.
Wrong with the policy of appeasement?
Appeasement never works. See answer to this question.What_is_wrong_with_the_policy_of_appeasement
