Medicaid does not take ownership of property - they have enough problems without going into the real estate business! Medicaid will file a lien and/or estate claim on real property owned by a recipient, to recover benefits paid.
If, on the other hand, someone quitclaims real property within 60 months prior to applying for Medicaid, the state will determine whether the applicant/recipient received "fair market value" for that transfer. If not, the applicant/recipient will likely be ineligible for payment for nursing home care or similar services (such as in-home care) for the period of time that the value of the property would have paid for that care at the private pay rate. For example, recipient lives in a nursing home for which the rate is $3,000/month. Recipient sells her property for $10.00; property was worth $9,010. Recipient will be ineligible for payment for nursing home services for three months. (The recipient will be eligible for payment of other medical services - physicians, hospitals, etc.)
Yes. You effectively "quit" your claim of ownership.
No, a co-signer does not have ownership rights to the property unless stated in the agreement. Taking the property without permission would generally be considered a violation of the co-signing arrangement and potentially illegal.
Answer: The municipality can record a Tax Taking against your property and eventually take ownership through a court decree for non-payment of taxes.
the term is adverse possession...it requires generally a period of 10 years of ongoing open, hostile, continuousand notorious use of the property that you attempt to claim
I take ownership of my actions and responsibilities.
Absolutely not. A quitclaim deed transfers the owner's interest in real property to a new owner.A bond for title is a contract by which the owner agrees to transfer the property to the buyer after the buyer makes all required regular payments over a certain period of time. During that time the owner retains title to the property and the buyer has little legal protection for the funds they have paid over. The land contract is a way for the seller to avoid transferring the property and taking back a mortgage.Absolutely not. A quitclaim deed transfers the owner's interest in real property to a new owner.A bond for title is a contract by which the owner agrees to transfer the property to the buyer after the buyer makes all required regular payments over a certain period of time. During that time the owner retains title to the property and the buyer has little legal protection for the funds they have paid over. The land contract is a way for the seller to avoid transferring the property and taking back a mortgage.Absolutely not. A quitclaim deed transfers the owner's interest in real property to a new owner.A bond for title is a contract by which the owner agrees to transfer the property to the buyer after the buyer makes all required regular payments over a certain period of time. During that time the owner retains title to the property and the buyer has little legal protection for the funds they have paid over. The land contract is a way for the seller to avoid transferring the property and taking back a mortgage.Absolutely not. A quitclaim deed transfers the owner's interest in real property to a new owner.A bond for title is a contract by which the owner agrees to transfer the property to the buyer after the buyer makes all required regular payments over a certain period of time. During that time the owner retains title to the property and the buyer has little legal protection for the funds they have paid over. The land contract is a way for the seller to avoid transferring the property and taking back a mortgage.
no
2C:20-3. Theft by unlawful taking or dispositiona. Movable property. A person is guilty of theft if he unlawfully takes, or exercises unlawful control over, movable property of another with purpose to deprive him thereof.b. Immovable property. A person is guilty of theft if he unlawfully transfers any interest in immovable property of another with purpose to benefit himself or another not entitled thereto.Section 3(a) means theft of personal property. Personal property is something that can be picked up and moved (movable property), such as furniture or money for example. Immovable property would be taking something that represents something else. For example stealing a deed to a home. The home is immovable but you stole ownership by transfering ownership under the deed.
Land ownership was taken over mainly by the businesses.
Ownership
Should the mother wish to prosecute, the adult child will be arrested for larceny (theft), defined as: the taking of the property of another with the intent to permanently deprive them of that property. There is no allowance made for family relationships, unless that relationship gives rise to joint ownership (ie, a husband can't "steal" joint marital property from his wife)
No. If you did not own, or have full legal acess to, the property at the time the offense was committed it amounts to a crime. Depending on the circumstances and the timeframe of your potentially taking full legal possession of the property, you might conceivably be able to plea the charge down to a lesser offense such as "trespass."