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What 2 countries was Hitler able to occupy as part of appeasement?
Wiki User
∙ 9y ago
Technically it was one country but got split into two.
Back in 1938, Czech Republic and Slovakia were one country, "Czechoslovakia". Parts of western Czech Republic had lots of German people living in them; this region was called Sudetenland. Hitler demanded Sudetenland, because he felt that German people should live in Germany (at least that's what he said). The leaders of France and England met with Hitler at Munich to decide what to do.
After the Munich Agreement allowed him to take the Sudetenland (even though nobody bothered to ask Czechoslovakia if that was ok), Hitler used this to weaken the Czechoslovakian government and military. About six months after taking Sudetenland, Hitler invited the president of Czechoslovakia to meet him in Berlin, where Hitler informed the president that Germany was invading. The president had a heart attack, and Germany did in fact invade. The Slovakian part of Czechoslovakia was separated out and made into its own country, but this new country was mostly under Germany's control too.
Perhaps you are also thinking of Austria? Austria was not part of the Munich Agreement, which is what "appeasement" typically refers to. Austria and Germany had been forbidden from merging by the treaties that ended World War I, and Hitler chose to ignore this. The Allies were not consulted, nor did they really do anything except complain when it happened.
Wiki User
∙ 9y ago
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