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If you mean Philip II of Spain, then yes, he was definitely an absolute monarch. At that time, England was the only country in Europe with any kind of democratic or representational body to limit the king's (or queen's) power, and even they didn't have much power.
Queen Elizabeth in England and King Philip in Spain.
Juan Carlos I of Spain is not an absolute monarch. An absolute monarch rules absolutely, that is without restriction or encumbrance of any kind. Spain is a Parliamentary Monarchy in which the country is governed by an elected government.
Philip ll of Spain
maintain absolute power
In 1813, Ferdinand became the king of Spain. The government's constitution was declared null and void, as the king intended to rule as an absolute monarch.
ap euro midterm? haha. Mary the first of England married Philip of Spain.
The Pope is an example of an absolute monarch as he is the ultimate head of the state of Vatican City, which is a tiny country, in fact the smallest country by area in the world located in Rome, Italy.
Philip II of Spain was known as Philip the Prudent
The Philippines acquired its present name from the Spanish King Philip II of Spain, who was monarch at the time the Spanish conquered the islands.
Philip II did control Spain. However he was married for seven years to Mary I of England. Many English hated this. He was given the duchy of Milan by Charles V, and the kingdoms of Naples and Sicily. He also had dominion over the Netherlands. With his third wife, he was given part of France. When his nephew died, he took over Portugal. (His mother was Portuguese royalty). His fourth wife was Austrian royalty. He married or was related by birth to far to many royal families. He chose not to learn any language but Spanish and this annoyed many people.
Philip V of Spain was born on December 19, 1683.