because people belived that women were not capable of making important decisions
From 1920 onwards women were able to vote in elections for Congress in the US on the same basis as men.
In 1920 in the US the passage of the 19th amendment was passed giving women the right to vote.
The 19th Amendment established laws that prohibits denying any citizen the right to vote based on that citizen's gender. Therefore, women could vote after the ratification of the 19th Amendment.
To give you a very short answer- they were NOT represented in the US Constitution. The Constitution makes no mention of women- since they did not have the right to vote (or most of the rights that men had)
the rich and well-born. ( white men with property )
From 1920 onwards women were able to vote in elections for Congress in the US on the same basis as men.
There was never any federal law limiting women's suffrage in that manner. Before passage of the 19 amendment however, most states did allow women to vote in at least some elections. Restrictions varied from state to state and I suppose it is possible that one or more states had such a restriction. I have never heard of it, but that doesn't mean it wasn't done somewhere.
The first election woman could vote was in 1920.The above applies only to federal elections in the United States. The 19th Amendment to the Constitution (ratified in 1920) provided that all women could vote in all elections nation-wide. Prior to that date, it was up to the states to decide. Consequently, before then, women were allowed to vote (both in state and in federal elections in that state) by several states, but not others.New Zealand was the first nation to grant the universal right to vote to women, in 1893 (though they couldn't run for office there until 1939).See the link below for more information about the Woman's Sufferage movement.
No. But he can vote in Canadian elections.
In 1920 in the US the passage of the 19th amendment was passed giving women the right to vote.
Women obtained suffrage through the 19th Amendment, which was ratified in 1920.
Before women could vote, the voters were mostly wealthy white men and land-owners; eventually any white men who were citizens could vote. This was gradually expanded after the Civil War, to allow black men to vote, but this was more theory than fact in some parts of the country-- while black men could and did vote up north, in the south, many obstacles and barriers were thrown in their way, making it nearly impossible for them to vote. It should also be noted that while many states would not let women vote till the 19th Amendment became law in August 1920, other states did give women some voting rights in state and local elections. Some western states like Wyoming let women vote as far back as the 1870s, and other states like Colorado and Utah gave women voting rights in the 1890s. But women could not vote in federal elections (for president) until 1920.
In the US, women had the theoretical right to run for President from the time they got the right to vote in Federal Elections, around 1923.
(in the US) No, there is no such requirement.
The 19th US Constitutional Amendment implicitly gave women the right to vote in all levels of US elections.
It gives them a chance to vote
Residents of US territories, such as Puerto Rico, Guam, and the US Virgin Islands, cannot vote in federal elections. However, they are allowed to vote in their respective local elections and have limited representation in the US Congress through non-voting delegates.