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Assuming that this question is referring exclusively to the Jewish seizure of lands owned by Muslims (as opposed to the far more numerable occassions where Muslims seized lands owned by Jews), this question will address that timeframe.

From the mid-1880s up until 1948, much of the land of Ottoman and British Palestine was owned by Turkish nobility living in Istanbul. It was of far more concern to them to have money to buy military equipment because of the Russian invasions and Balkan insurrections than to have Palestinian land-holdings, especially since the area was a backwater. As a result, wealthy Zionists (primarily Jews, but not exclusively) purchased large tracts of these lands for fair and equitable value. The Settled Arabs (the ancestors of the Palestinians) were angered that the lands upon which they lived, but did not own, were sold from beneath them.

Far more land was taken as a result of the Jewish-Arab Engagement of 1947-1949 which saw the borders of the Jewish State expand as a result of skirmishes brought about by Arabs who refused to grant validity to the Jewish State. As a result of the fighting, 720,000 Palestinians fled their homes or left of their own volition (whether it was a forced exodus is a hot debate). The Israeli government immediately passed a law saying that if these lands remained unoccupied for three years, they would pass into state control. So in 1952, many of the lands formerly occupied by Palestinians became Israeli property.

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Q: When did Jews take the land away from the Muslims?
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