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Do you mean 'why did the Belgians let French and british troops in once the German invasion was underway?" The Belgians actually did very little to coordinate with the Brits and French prior to the war starting in earnest. Believe there was some high level contacts Behind the Scenes. They did not want to do anything to provoke the Germans into invading Belgium. Cooperating with the Brits/French could have been taken up by Hitlers as a provocation very easily. Once the Germans had crossed the border into Belgium, the Belgians became much more amenable to French and British troops entering their country. Jon, Your question suggests you think the Germans invaded France and left Belgium alone, that is not the case. When the Germans attacked in the west they did not invade France directly, they attacked Belgium and Holland, both of which were neutral. That was just a feint though. When they attacked Belgium the Belgians immediately asked for French and British help and got it, which was just what the Germans were expecting. When most of the British Expeditionary Force and a large part of the French army were engaged in Belgium the Germans launched their main attack toward Sedan. That allowed them to split the allied armies in two. Michael Montagne

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In World War One, it was simply a case of access to France. The Imperial government in Germany demanded the right to march through Belgium to attack France (or defend themselves from France, as they saw it). Of course, this would have meant supply the German forces through Belgium as well; the Belgian King and government refused, Germany declared war on Belgium and the British Empire stepped in to expel them - causing the immediate stalemate and destruction of most of West Flanders.

In World War Two, the invasion was much more subtly driven. Nazi Germany had several reasons to invade neutral Belgium. These included, again, access to non-neutral France. The Nazis wanted to remove potential aggressors on to their west to avoid the disastrous "fighting on two fronts" that ruined them in the first war (and would do so again from 1944). The also had their violent ideology behind them: Belgium and the Netherlands had both a large population of Jewish refugees from Germany (and their own Jewish population) and, conversely, their own National Socialist parties who appealed for "intervention" by Nazi Germany to put them into power. The Nazis may also have believed that their way of government - fascism - was better than the democracy already in place in Belgium and sought to replace the system with one of their own.

AnswerThe reason in both World Wars was to gain access to France easily. The notion that the reasons in World War 2 were oh-so-subtle is pure fantasy.
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Q: When the Germans where invading Paris why did the Belgians let the French and British in Belgium?
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