The conquistadores were led by two Spanish explorers :
In Mexico, the Aztecs under Moctezuma II (Montezuma) were defeated between 1519 and 1521 by Hernan Cortés (Hernando Cortez). After 7 months of a siege by the Spanish and some Tlaxcalan warriors, the empire fell on August 13, 1521.
With Cortes was Don Pedro Alvarado, who would later govern over Guatemala and nearby Central America.
In Peru, the Incas were conquered in 1532 and 1533 by Francisco Pizarro. His troops defeated a vastly larger Incan force, and initially ransomed the Incan king Atahualpa for a roomful of gold (and two of silver). Pizarro had the king killed instead, charging that he was plotting against the Spanish.
South America
Mexico was a colony of Spain, dominated by 'peninsulares' or people born in Spain. Below them were the rest of the castes, including criollos or creole people (descendants of Spaniards, born in Mexico). Mexico was almost-self administered, but a strong resentment among criollos led to the independence movement during the early 19th century.
1500s
In Mexico? The Mexica (commonly misnamed as Aztecs) qualify as such.
During the 17th century.
Several Spanish conquerors (or, 'conquistadores') led Spain's campaigns of conquest in the American regions of Mexico and Peru in the 16th century. Foremost was Hernan Cortes (1485-1547), who was instrumental in the conquest of Mexico, although others would complete the work that he began. In Peru, it was Francisco Pizarro (d. 1541) who led the primary campaign that brought most of the region into Spanish control.
Hernan Cortes and Francisco Pizarro, respectively.
Yes. However, it has a Spanish origin (passed on to Mexico when Spain conquered the Aztecs during the 16th century).
Both countries were settled by Spanish conquistadors from the 16th to 18th century, conquering or utterly destroying the Native American peoples found on them; besides that, their history, culture and even ethnicity has diverged enormously. One example is their ethnicity: Mexico is mainly composed of the descendants of interracial marriages between Aztec and Mayan people and their Spanish conquerors; on Argentina, most native peoples were completely exterminated and as a result, most Argentinians are descendants of Spanish and more recently, of Italian immigrants who arrived during the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
Not really; it originated from Spain and during the Age of Exploration, when Mexico was conquered and settled by Spanish conquistadors in the 15th century, the last name Garcia was among those transferred to Mexico.
It depends. If you are talking about the settlers that came into Mexico during the 16th century, at the Age of Discovery, yes most of them were Spanish with minorities such as French or English. If you mean those who first arrived and settled in Mexico EVER, those would be people from north-east Asia, who crossed the Bering Strait during the last Ice Age and populated the lands we know today as the Americas.
Because both countries were conquered and settled by the Spanish Empire during the 16th century. As such, Spanish Conquistadors imposed their language, religion and traditions to the conquered Native American peoples found in either nation.
There were several conquerors of Israel. During the Hellenistic period, it was Pompey. During the Persian period it was Cyrus and during the Babylonian period it was Ashkelon.
Such mineral resource was the main reason for the conquest of both countries by Spanish conquistadores in the 16th century.
SPANISH
Spanish is Mexico's main language because it was introduced by Spanish colonizers during the colonial period which lasted from 1521 to 1821. As a result of this colonization, Spanish became the dominant language in Mexico and has since been spoken by the majority of the population.
No. Mexico is on the southern tip of North America. It however, was conquered and settled during the 16th century by Spanish Conquistadors. Hence, Mexico became an overseas territory of Spain, a European country.