It was Britain mainly who permitted the appeasing. Neville Chamberlain, prime minister of Britain before Winston Churchill, permitted the invasions of Czechoslovakia and Austria-Hungary. The US was in a state of isolation and, due to financial constraints, did not meddle with Germany. Winston Churchill, once elected, responded to Germany only after the invasion of France.
Winston Churchill opposed Neville Chamberlains policy of appeasement because he saw and knew what Hitler was doing and new that he was getting stronger, he stood up and said this but was the only one who did so.
It may have led them to the conclusion that no one would support their victims, or caused them to believe that we were afraid of them.
From early in World War 2, Britain tried to gain the support of the U.S. but the idea that one only has to seek allies in order for them to materialize is unrealistic.
Well it wasnt a bad policy at the time, remember that war was something to be avoided. Hitler only asked for lands where it was former pre-war Germany or had a majority of Germans living there i.e. the Sudetenland. Where Hitler crossed the line in the eyes of the rest of the world was when he took over all of Czechoslovakia. After that appeasement was abandoned, France and Britain allied themselves with Poland (rightly thought to be the next target) and the rest is history
This is a difficult question because America's policies sway with the elections every few years. In the Bush years, our foreign policy was in fact militaristic. In the Obama years, it has leaned away closer toward pacifism. The viewpoints are split along the line between militarism and pacifism. Here's one example of a militarist viewpoint in America, from a blog named American Solvent: "Appeasement and why it doesn't work". Ref: http://www.americansolvent.com/2009/07/05/appeasement-and-why-it-doesnt-work/
appeasement
Appeasement is a diplomatic/political policy whereby one nation or set of nations "appeases" another (or several others) by giving in to demands or even actions of some kind. Appeasement was enacted quite famously in the 1930s by the British and French governments, as they gave in to German demands and actions alike without any hostile reaction, sometimes even with formal approval.
Winston Churchill opposed Neville Chamberlains policy of appeasement because he saw and knew what Hitler was doing and new that he was getting stronger, he stood up and said this but was the only one who did so.
Answer this question… Great Britain and France abandoned the policy of German appeasement.
chamberlain did no war so he made an act for appeasement also since the great depression was still in act no one in europe or outside europe was prepared for another war
In the years leading up to World War II, many people (if mostly a minority) disapproved of the policy of appeasement. "War hawks" throughout the western nations spoke up in protest of the generally accepted view that appeasement was wise. One such "disapprover" was Winston Churchill, who would go on to serve as Prime Minister for Great Britain in its darkest days of the war and then beyond.
Appeasement is a policy of accepting the imposed conditions of an aggressor in lieu of armed resistance, usually at the sacrifice of principles. Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appeasement_policy
Generally speaking, appeasement is a foreign policy term that speaks to a nations relationships to other nations. A nation with a foreign policy of appeasement usually infers that certain types of unruly behavior is allowed by other nations as a way to maintain peace, rather than confrontation other than dialogues concerning the situation. The classic example of this appeasement policy is the way France and England allowed Nazi Germany to break the Treaty of Versailles and other situations. The Allies, France and England, went along or appeased Hitler in order to avoid a war. If appeasement is practiced where issues are minor, then perhaps accommodation is a better term.
Winston Churchill opposed Neville Chamberlain's policy of appeasement because he saw and new what Hitler was doing and new that he was getting stronger, he stood up and said this but was the only one who did so...He didint say appeasement was a bad idea he just thought after Hitler had broken his promises a couple of times he thought that they should have stopped and used aggression and stopped Hitler while they could.
It may have led them to the conclusion that no one would support their victims, or caused them to believe that we were afraid of them.
he responded by asking for more and more. he broke the agreements made as a result of Germany apparently starting WW1. He was given land such as the Sudetenland through appeasement which caused him to undermine the power of Britain and France. he became more powerful and confident with each successful demand, and this is one of the caused of WW2.
In the years leading up to World War II, Great Britain (as well as France) indulged in an appeasement policy toward Germany and other aggressor-nations. One negative result was that it encouraged Germany, in particular, to continue making demands and engaging in aggressive policies. On the other hand, it undeniably bought time for the nation to rearm and otherwise prepare for the war that increasingly seemed to be a certainty.