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Why did the emancipation act provide for full emancipation in 1838 and 1840 than in 1834?
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Just so we're clear, this is the British abolition of slavery, not Abraham Lincoln's (which happened in the Confederacy with his 1863 Emancipation Proclamation, and then in the entire US permanently with the 13th Amendment in 1865).
The Act didn't outright abolish slavery like the Americans later did. In colonies like India and Canada, slavery was kept in place, but was gradually phased out by turning the slaves into "apprentices". The first wave of "apprentices" were freed in 1838, and the second wave was freed in 1840.
Additionally, unlike the Americans, the British government paid compensation to companies who lost their slaves. So they probably needed some time to raise the money, because they paid a lot (£20 million!).
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
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