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Why have there been cases in history where a king divorced his queen because she would only produce daughters?
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
Usually it was an annulment.
They would not openly say it was the reason, but found some pretext (like too close family-relationships, or a former bethrothal that was binding).
Louis VII of France did this with Eleanor of Aquitaine, though they had other problems as well. Both would go on to have sons with a subsequent spouse.
Henry VIII did this with Catherine of Aragon and Anne Boleyn.
Wiki User
∙ 13y ago
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