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Probably because the king's pay would convince judges to side with the king, making for a biased court system.

Since the Judge was being paid for by the king, he would want to rule in favor of the king.

If the judges were being paid by the King Of England, then their ruling would tend to more in the direction of the King's rule. There was no uniquely American law, as it were, in this country until 1776 when the War of Independence took place and the Bill of Rights was drafted so the law of the land was still the same as Great Britain's.

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11y ago
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7y ago

Here's what the Declaration has to say on the matter.

He has made Judges dependent n his Will alone for the tenure of their offices, and the amount and payment of their salaries.

The Declaration doesn't bother to state explicitly why this is part of "a history of repeated injuries and usurpations", nor why it "[has] in direct object the establishment of an absolute Tyranny over these States." They just make the statement and assume the reader will be intelligent enough to figure out for themselves why they regard this as a bad thing.

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8y ago

If their judges' salaries were payed by the king the judges would lean to what the king wanted.

Ema gibbings

British Parliament

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Q: Why were the American colonists unhappy with the fact that their judges salaries and tenures were paid by the king?
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