If a population does not have a particular dominant allele, it could return to the population through the Immigration of new individuals carrying the dominant allele.
quinceanera
No! they are different
He would have the recessive phenotype for that trait.
The allele not expressed would be recessive whilst the other is dominant. This would be the case in a heterozygous genotype. Hope this helps
In diploid organisms (those with two copies of each gene carried on separate chromosomes), one of the copies of a given gene may differ from the other copy of the same gene on the twin chromosome. In some cases one version of the gene (the dominant allele) has the effect of 'masking' the activity of the other (the recessive allele); that is, the presence of the dominant allele negates the effect of the recessive allele on the organism's phenotype. There are many mechanisms which can cause this phenomena, and it depends on the particular genes involved, but a simple model is one where the recessive allele is a biochemically inactive version of the dominant allele. In this case the dominant allele would mask the effect of the recessive allele by providing an active version of the gene. The dominant phenotype would be the one which shows the downstream effects of this activity, and the recessive phenotype one which shows the downstream effects of a lack of activity. The dominant allele is said to 'mask' the recessive allele because only one copy is required to result in an elimination of the recessive phenotype, whereas all copies of the gene must be the recessive allele to result in the recessive phenotype.
Dominant allele because its more likely to be received by the next generation.
It will be the lowercase form of the dominant allele. For example the dominant form for tallness is T, the recessive allele for shortness is t.
This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive. If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.
This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive. If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.
If one allele is not dominant over the other it would mean the alleles are the same so that organism would be a mutant.
quinceanera
That is heterozygous. Some scientist call these "hybrids"(no joke)The person is heterozygous for that trait and will have the dominant phenotype.An organism with both a dominant and recessive allele for a specific trait is called an heterozygote. They are heterozygous for this trait.
suppose you found a curl cat and wanted to start your own population. how would you determine whether the curl allele is dominant or recessive?
No! they are different
He would have the recessive phenotype for that trait.
The allele not expressed would be recessive whilst the other is dominant. This would be the case in a heterozygous genotype. Hope this helps
This would depend on whether the allele for dimples is dominant or recessive. If the allele for dimples is dominant and the no dimples allele is recessive then the phenotype of the individual would be dimpled. If the allele for no dimples is dominant and the allele for no dimples is recessive then the dimples will not be expressed. If these alleles are codominant then the dimples will be expressed but not as much as in an individual who has both alleles for dimples.