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Did Rome adopt from the Greeks the idea that an individual is a citizen in a state rather than the subject of a ruler?
Wiki User
∙ 6y ago
The concept of citizenship had many variations but most originated locally based on the mutual desire for self protection by people combining together to defend for the common good. In bothe early Greece and early Rome the independent farmers were the basis for military defence. The upper class could not compel them to fight for them and so had to make concessions, recognising them as citizens and conceding rights of ownership and consultation on state matters.
This was tested after expulsion of the kings in Rome at the end of the 6th Cemtiry BCE , when the aristocrats tried to impose their will and the mass of the people walked out and left the city defenceless - the aristocrats had to offer them rights of assembly and legislative power and one of the two annual consulships.
At the same time the Greek cities were experiencing similar problems, but as there were hundreds of them as opposed to one city of Rome, their solutions were more varied and staggered, but they eventually came to the same conclusion of allowing the people to participate in government, and even dominate it in some city-states. Athens took progressive steps, arriving at a democracy about the same time as Rome.
It is difficult to compare a single independent city - Rome - withe hundreds of independent cities in Greece which moved in different ways and different speeds, but a generalisation would be that both Rome and the Greek cities moved to citizenship and citizen rights at about the same time independently of each other.
Wiki User
∙ 6y ago
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