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This classic saying means that you can not generally defend yourself against a claim on the grounds that what you did, or failed to do, was not legal. While it often pertains to criminal law matters, it can pertain to others such as tax, administrative, etc. The underlying reasoning is that in any kind of orderly society the citizens must be held to account to know what the law is, and if not known, to find out what it is first before acting.
An example is a car speeding through a suburban residential street at 50 mph. The driver defends on the grounds that there was "no speed sign". The driver will be held to know that the general rule of law is 30 mph and if not sure then 50 mph certainly is inappropriate.
What else can I help you with?
Why is ignorance is no excuse of the law?
Ignorance of the law is not an excuse because the legal system operates under the principle that individuals are expected to know and abide by the laws that govern them. Allowing ignorance as an excuse would undermine the integrity and effectiveness of the legal system by providing an easy way for individuals to escape accountability for their actions.
What does it meaning of ignorance of the law excuses no one?
"Ignorance of the law is no excuse" is a common phrase in the law. It means that if an individual breaks a law, they cannot defend themselves by claiming that they did not know that there was a law to be broken, or that they were breaking it.This topic is often tied in with "mens rea." Mens rea is a concept the law uses to describe a mental element of a crime. Often, a crime is defined as requiring that the individual have both committed the act of the crime (the "actus reus") and intended to commit the crime ("mens rea.") There was a time when criminals would claim that they did not intend to commit the crime, because they did not know that the act which they committed was a crime.This is why the law developed the concept that "ignorance of the law is no excuse." It creates an irrebutable presumptionthat every person knows what the law is, and that no one can claim that they did not have the mens rea because they did not know what the law is.
Battered women syndrome is an excuse for women to kill or Do you think they are telling the truth?
As any law student can tell you, the term "excuse" is a subjective term that basically means "whatever the judge/jury will accept." There are many cases in which the battered woman defense came into play as a defense for murder or manslaughter.Cornell University Law School has a list of the requirements for the legal definition of this defense and the requirements that are necessary for it to be entered as a plea in a court of law. The list can be found at the below link:Added: This is NOT a question. It cannot be responded to with a definitive answer. It is a springboard for debate, discussion, and argument and more properly belongs on a board or chatroom.
What does it mean to repeal a law?
To repeal a law means to officially revoke or annul that law, rendering it no longer in effect. This can be done through a legislative process where a new law is passed specifically to remove the old law from the legal system.
What is the law about carrying a knife in western Australia?
In Western Australia, it is illegal to carry a knife in public without a lawful excuse or authority. This law is enforced to help prevent violent incidents and protect public safety. Penalties for carrying a knife unlawfully can include fines and imprisonment.
If a citizen claims ignorance of the law is he responsible for his crime?
Yes, he is still responsible for his crime. Ignorance of the law is no excuse. It is your duty as a citizen to know, understand, and obey the law. This is why laws are written.
Can you be prosecuted for a crime if you dont know it exists?
The question is extremely unclear. . . BUT - - "Ignorance of the law is no excuse!"
Can A citizen escape the consequences of breaking a law by proving they had no knowledge of that particular law?
I studied this in my 10th grade business law class. Ignorance is no excuse for not following the law. HOWEVER, if you end up in a case where you feel as though the law (ex. Speed Limit) was not properly displayed, then you could POSSIBLY fight that. But ignorance is NEVER an excuse.
What role does ignorance play in the concept that "ignorance is 9/10 of the law"?
The concept that "ignorance is 9/10 of the law" suggests that people who are unaware of the law may not be held accountable for breaking it. Ignorance can play a significant role in this concept as it implies that lack of knowledge about the law can sometimes serve as a defense or excuse for illegal actions.
Why is ignorance is no excuse of the law?
Ignorance of the law is not an excuse because the legal system operates under the principle that individuals are expected to know and abide by the laws that govern them. Allowing ignorance as an excuse would undermine the integrity and effectiveness of the legal system by providing an easy way for individuals to escape accountability for their actions.
Can a 17 years old boy say ignorance of a law is an excuse as being young?
Nope minor or not, Ignorance of the law is not a valid reason for committing a crime. Youth MAY be taken into consideration by a prosecutor & a judge, but that is up to them.
Can a insurance billing specialist escape liability by pleading ignorance?
No. Ignorance is not an excuse to evade the law. Can a drunk driver evade a ticket and possible jail time by pleading ignorance? Can a hunter avoid being charged with hunting out of season (poaching) due to ignorance? The simple and lawful answer is NO.
What are the distinction of ignorant leges non excusat?
ignorant leges non excusat means that ignorance of a given law is not an excuse to that criminal charge.
What does it meaning of ignorance of the law excuses no one?
"Ignorance of the law is no excuse" is a common phrase in the law. It means that if an individual breaks a law, they cannot defend themselves by claiming that they did not know that there was a law to be broken, or that they were breaking it.This topic is often tied in with "mens rea." Mens rea is a concept the law uses to describe a mental element of a crime. Often, a crime is defined as requiring that the individual have both committed the act of the crime (the "actus reus") and intended to commit the crime ("mens rea.") There was a time when criminals would claim that they did not intend to commit the crime, because they did not know that the act which they committed was a crime.This is why the law developed the concept that "ignorance of the law is no excuse." It creates an irrebutable presumptionthat every person knows what the law is, and that no one can claim that they did not have the mens rea because they did not know what the law is.
Which of the following is not an element of fraud a. Scienter b. Misrepresentation of a material fact c. Justifiable reliance by the innocent party d. Ignorance of the law?
d. ignorance of the law d. ignorance of the law
Is it true or false that Aristotle believed that true ignorance is a good excuse for bad behavior.?
False. Aristotle believed that ignorance is not a valid excuse for bad behavior, as he emphasized the importance of moral responsibility and making informed choices based on knowledge and reason.
In the US it is presumed that every citizen a abides by the law b believes in the law c knows the law d votes to uphold the law?
I'm not sure I discern a question here, but in a civilised society a citizen (I imagine you mean resident) does not have to believe in the law - there are several laws against which our instincts and feelings would rebel so (b) does not apply. Ignorance of the law has never been an excuse - so (c) goes out for a walk. The vote could be to change the law (d) fails to hold any water.
