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first answer:
Maybe - but there was no reason to attack Germany in 1938.
second answer:
No one can know for sure. I assume if you are talking about the possibility of war in 1938, that you are referring to the period of crisis involving Hitler's demands on Czechoslovakia, April-September 1938). British Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain was not willing to risk war to protect Czech borders. The French were not willing to risk war without the help of Britain. In the end, Hitler got Czechoslovakia without a war.
Although the German military leaders, at the time, were concerned that they would lose in a war with France & Britain, later events proved that the German military was capable of defeating France and pushing the British off the continent. This is primarily because the French & British allowed the Germans to attack first.
The only real chance for French & British victory over Germany required an Allied offensive into Germany's Ruhr region (industrial heart of Germany). The British & French were unwilling in 1938, 1939 & 1940 to do this. Based on this, I would assume that a war in 1938 would have resembled the war that began a year later.
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Why did France and Britain permit Germany to essentially take over most of Europe by 1940?
These two powers thought they could appease Germany by letting her have her demands. This pacifism/appeasement is known as the Munich Doctrine, named after the Munich Agreement, when Britain and France allowed Germany to annex parts of Europe. The allies let Germany grow in power, even though it violated the post-WWI treaties. Once powerful enough, Germany quickly took over Poland and France before there was any time to react.
Why was Germany's invasion of France postponed until May 1940?
So Germany could build up its strength. Michael Montagne
Why were the French angry about Germany's invasion of Poland in World War 2?
In 1940, Germany attacked France and occupied it. As part of the surrender terms, a portion of France would be occupied and controlled by the Germans. Other parts of France and their African colonies became ally to Germany and under their rule. Therefore, the French in Algiers had to fight any enemy of Germany or they could risk punishment from the Germans. As you may know, American General Mark Clark carried out a clandestine landing on North Africa in order to convince French General Darlan to order his troops to disarm when the Americans landed. This did not exactly happen as planned on the first day but eventually, the French soldiers laid down their weapons and the Germans could not do anything.
Why did appeasement benefit Britain and France?
Hitler saw appeasement as weakness on the part of Britain & France. As long as they didnt use military force to compel him to actually do anything it gave time for him to build the German war machinery. Austria had been annexed in to greater Germany & the Sudeten Germans & then Czechoslovakia itself became part of Germany. And had it stopped there then the world history would be very different. The invasion of Poland was, to Britain & France beyond what they could accept. Even then there was reluctance on the part of the French. The Germans invaded Poland on September 1st 1939 & was told to withdraw. On the 3rd Britain declared war. Appeasement was shown for what it was, foolhardy but well intentioned, empty rhetoric without anything to enforce it. Its lack of determination, backbone if you will, would cost many people their lives in many years to come. but then, the road to hell is paved with good intentions....
Could World War 2 have been avoided if Britain and France had refused Hitlers demands at the Munich Conference?
Unlikely, Hitler in Germany was intent on revenge for the humiliation of WWI.
Was world war2 unavoidable?
Indeed, When Germany invaded Poland they had intentions to only begin an eatward expanse against Russia but since Poland was an ally of France and Britain they declared war, Germany wasnt excpecting Britain and France to declare war so they invaded France and then Britain FURTHER pulling America into the war because they were allies with Britain, now Germany changed the battle plan and attacked North Africa, If France and Britain hadnt declared war on Germany first then ww2 could have been unavoidable and Germany couldve just went on to face Russia =D
Which was more important as a reason for Great Britain joining World War I?
The more important reason for Britain joining World War 1 was the Schlieffen Plan, that Germany had written up. The plan involved Germany attacking on two fronts; Russia and France. Almost immediately this would of set sparks off within the Triple Entente; Great Britain, Russia and France. The biggest fault of the plan was that Germany would have to go through Belgium to attack France. In 1839, Britain signed a treaty with France stating that they would help Belgium, who were neutral, if they were ever invaded. With Germany wanting to pass through Belgium, Britain were forced to declare war on Germany, something which the Germans had not expected at all. If Britain had left it, essentially Germany would of invaded both France and Belgium, and then would of been able to invade Britain from the South. Germany could of won World War One if Great Britain didn't attack.
What event made Britain and France so reluctant to fight in world war 2?
The great depression was a major factor because Britain and France could really afford another war. Also Britain kept having hollow treaties with Germany and that made it impossible for France to declare war because if they did they would not be able to attack Germany without help from Britain. Also France had lost millions of men in world war 1 and the people of France were reluctant to fight again even though they did eventually.
Which four countries ruled over Germany so that no one like Hitler could rule over Germany again?
United States, Britain, France, and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
Why did France and Britain permit Germany to essentially take over most of Europe by 1940?
These two powers thought they could appease Germany by letting her have her demands. This pacifism/appeasement is known as the Munich Doctrine, named after the Munich Agreement, when Britain and France allowed Germany to annex parts of Europe. The allies let Germany grow in power, even though it violated the post-WWI treaties. Once powerful enough, Germany quickly took over Poland and France before there was any time to react.
Why was Britain's involvement in World War 1 inevitable?
I don't agree that the war between Britain and Germany was inevitable because they could always have peace proposals and peace talks where they will talk about what will they do for the betterment of each countries.
In the years before the war why did Britain and France refuse the Russian overtures for an alliance?
Britain and France sees both Russia and Germany as potential threats ,after the Russian revolution Russia was hitting hard in world politics and economy so Britain and France hoped for a typical war between Russia and Germany (as Germany was becoming the world superpower ).Their was that If Russia And Germany could collide one would destroy another and there will be at least one enemy wipped out or weekend and would be easy to handle,this strategy was called as satisfying spree but unfortunately Russia and Germany came under an agreement not to attack each other ,that's why France and Britain refuses the Russian overtures for alliance though they gave (as announced) their full support to Russia when Russia managed to stop Germany's progress in Stalingrad .
What was schliffen plan?
Germany had been preparing for war long before 1914. In fact, Germany had started drawing up a plan for war - the Schlieffen Plan - in 1897. It took nine years to finalise, but it was based on the theory that Germany would be at war with France and Russia at the same time. It did not prepare for many of the events that occured in July and August 1914. It was based on the belief that, if the country went to war, Germany would be faced with a war on two frontswith France and Russia.This map shows the war faced by Germany on two frontsThe plan assumed that France was weak and could be beaten quickly, and thatRussia was much stronger, but would take longer to mobilise its army.The plan began to go wrong on 30 July 1914, when Russia mobilised its army, but France did not. Germany was forced to invent a pretext to declare war on France (3 August 1914).Things got worse when Britain declared war on Germany on 4 August 1914 because, in a Treaty of 1839, Britain had promised to defend Belgium.
Why did Britain and France take no action against Italian aggression?
Because they weren't sure they could win a war against the Italians, who had established ties with Germany. The Italian leader Mussolini dreamed of building a colonial empire in Africa like those of Britain and France, and had a formidable navy.
What could Britain do to help prevent war with Germany?
not much
Was russo-japanese war apart of World War 1?
No. WW1 came in 1914. The Russo-Japanese War "almost" or "could have" became WWI...as Germany & France wanted to side with Russia against Japan; only Britain's "pact" with Japan prevented it. Had Germany/France entered the war against Japan, Britain would have entered the war as Japan's ally...WWI!
Could us army have beaten the red army in ww2?
The U.S. and russia would have been at a stalemate because Russia's army is bigger but poorly equiped and we had a huge air force compared to them. Also if we did fight, Germany would have helped us as well as many other countries such as Britain and France.
