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If the question is asking whether European Powers (specifically, Great Britain, France, Italy, and Russia) established colonies, protectorates, mandates, and spheres of influence in the Middle East, the answer is: Yes.

However the question as phrased is a little difficult to understand. It is unclear what "successfully controlling" something means. If it refers to an intentional re-molding of society like what the Spaniards did in Latin America, than the Europeans did not "successfully control" the Middle East. Additionally, if "successfully controlling" refers to having power and authority over all parts of the Middle East, the Europeans did not "successfully control" the Middle East since Saudi Arabia was always independent of the West and Turkey effectively fought off attempts to carve spheres of influence into its territory.

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Q: Did the europeans successfully control the middle east?
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