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Appeasement was the policy of the West of avoiding confrontation with Nazi Germany. After WWI, Europe was devastated economically, physically, and emotionally. They did not want to be dragged into another conflict so when Hitler violated the Treaty of Versailles by reoccupying the Rhineland and expanding the German army past the limit, they did nothing. Meanwhile, in Spain, a civil war and Fascist revolt threatened the democratic government. Despite Germany and Italy supporting the Spanish Fascists, Britain and France refused to fight a proxy war by supporting the Communist government. At Munich, British, French, and German leaders met to discuss Germany reoccupying the Sudetenland of Czech. . They agreed to German control because it was German speaking as long Hitler stopped there. Hitler then took the rest of Czech. but the Allies again did nothing. Finally, on Sept. 1, 1939 and Britain and France declared war on Germany. Despite this common explanation, there is another possibility. After WWI, Russia became Communist despite the Allies best efforts. Communism quickly became a scary topic and a Red Scare even greater then the one of the 50s took place. During the twenties and thirties, conservatives in Britain and France saw Fascism, not as an evil, but a cure for Communism. (There are numerous quotes by high ranking Allies supporting this fact.) Britain saw Fascist Germany as a way to eliminate Communist Russia. (Hitler described his work Mein Kampf) Britain encouraged Nazi eastern expansion. They saw Hitler as the best way to eliminate Stalin. At Munich, the Soviet Union was not involved in the decision to give up he Sudetenland. However, when Hitler gave a portion of Czech. to Austria as a gift, Britain realized that Hitler might attack France BEFORE attacking the Soviet Union. Look into this, its pretty interesting.
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How did the policy of appeasment effect World War 2?
Appeasement postponed WW II for a year or so.
To avoid a repeat of World War 1 Britain reacted to early Nazi aggression with a policy of?
Appeasement
When did the appeasement fail before World War 2?
The policy of appeasement failed notably in 1939 when Adolf Hitler invaded Poland on September 1, prompting Britain and France to declare war on Germany. Prior to this, appeasement had allowed for the annexation of Austria (Anschluss) in 1938 and the occupation of the Sudetenland in Czechoslovakia, underscoring its ineffectiveness in curbing Nazi aggression. The failure of appeasement highlighted the dangers of conceding to totalitarian demands, ultimately leading to the outbreak of World War II.
Why was the policy of appeasement in World War 2 significant?
Germany went from being a defeated country at the end of WW II, in 1918, to overrunning all of continental Europe in 1939, which was just 21 years later. The policy of appeasement, which was intended to make Germany happy so that it would not go to war, instead allowed Germany the opportunity to rebuild its military and to make all the necessary preparations for war, and to become the most powerful nation in Europe. So appeasement was a horribly foolish policy, as it turned out.
What were the three reason why the European leaders agreed to a policy of appeasement?
They did not want to fight another war. They were still in the throes of the depression and they did not want another World War 1 after millions died in vain in that war.
What policy did Britain and France adopt toward Hitler before World War 2?
AppeasementThe policy of appeasement.
Could World War 2 have benn averted with the appeasement policy?
The policy of appeasement contributed to the start of World War 2. When the allied countries gave in to Hitler's first demands it encouraged him to try for more.
Was the appeasement policy effective in preventing war in Europe?
Prior to World War II, the diplomatic policy of appeasement was in fact an effective way to avoid general war. For much of the 1930s, appeasement succeeded in holding off any conflict comparable to World War I. Whether this policy was wise is another question, for some have argued that a harder stance towards Germany in the 1930s could have led to a much quicker, less expansive war.
What is the policy of giving in to Hitler's demands before World War 2 called?
"Appeasement" .
What policy did western democracies adopt toward Hitler before World War 2 began?
Western democracies desperately wanted to avoid war, and therefore adopted a policy of appeasement toward Hitler prior to WW II.
Why was the policy of appeasement a benefit to Hitler?
because of the appeasement policy Hitler can do anything he wanted to do because France and Britain will do nothing to stop him because they don't want to have another world war
What policy did western democracies follow in response to hitlers aggressive actions prior to World War 2?
Appeasement Policy
When was the policy of appeasement made?
The policy of appeasement was not an actual policy, rather a strategy adopted by Britain and France during the 1930's to try and lower Hitler's aggressiveness. Ultimately it was a factor in causing World War 2
How successful was the policy of appeasement?
The policy of appeasement was not successful at all. The Axis powers had no interest in brokering peace but wanted war.
What was the aim of policy of appeasement?
Not having to go to war and avoid the terrible loss of life sustained in World War 1
Was the British Policy of appeasement mainly responsible for the outbreak of war in 1939?
The outbreak of another world war in 1939 was in part caused by the British appeasement-policy of the 1930s. Other factors were responsible, as well, such as the intentional and determined aggression of Germany.
Which british prime minister during world war 2 disapproved of the policy of appeasement?
Winston Churchill
