In most states and with most banks, the answer is no. It can get complicated in a couple of states though. I am aware of several cases where a more that one person was on title for a home. Only one of them applied for and received a second mortgage, the other was not aware.
It is best to check on your state laws.
If you are the only one on title, I can not see this happening with a 2nd mortgage.
The primary mortgage lender holds the first mortgage. If his mortgage is not paid, he sells the property. He gets paid. You may have a second mortgage. If the second mortgage lender is not paid, he can sell the property. If he sells the property, the primary mortgage lender gets paid first, then the secondary lender gets paid.
No, they are two separate loans. If the second mortgage is foreclosed the lender takes possession of the property subject to the first mortgage. The borrower no longer owns the property.
If the second mortgage is in default the second mortgagee can foreclose and take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage.
A second mortgage is when, already having a mortgage, you take out a second loan/mortgage secured on the property. This is possible if you have positive equity. A second mortgage calculator will give some indication about how much might be able to be borrowed without having to actually approach a money lender and give them your personal details.
Yes, a financial company can purchase the lien on your mortgage and then foreclose on your property if you have not made sufficient payments.The second mortgagee can also foreclose on the second mortgage and take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage. In that case, the lender would have to pay off the first mortgage before it could keep any proceeds from a sale of the property..
The buyer of a second mortgage is buying the rights of the mortgagee (lender) under the second mortgage. A buyer of a mortgage is correctly called a mortgage assignee. Therefore, the buyer of the second mortgage is subject to the first mortgage. The first mortgage needs to be paid, not "reinstated".The property remains subject to the first mortgage until it has been paid off. Even if the property is transferred to a new owner the property is subject to the first mortgage and the second mortgage if there was a second mortgage recorded in the land records. The second mortgage always remains subject to the first mortgage until the first mortgage has been paid.Note that a property subject to a mortgage is subject to all the terms of that mortgage. Mortgages have boilerplate "due on transfer" clauses. That means if there is any transfer in ownership of the property, the lender will demand payment of the mortgage in full, immediately.It sounds like you need to discuss this with an attorney who can review the details of your situation and explain your options.
After the foreclosure of the first mortgage the second mortgage is wiped out as an encumbrance against the property but remains an unpaid debt against the mortgagor. The creditor can sue in civil court.After the foreclosure of the first mortgage the second mortgage is wiped out as an encumbrance against the property but remains an unpaid debt against the mortgagor. The creditor can sue in civil court.After the foreclosure of the first mortgage the second mortgage is wiped out as an encumbrance against the property but remains an unpaid debt against the mortgagor. The creditor can sue in civil court.After the foreclosure of the first mortgage the second mortgage is wiped out as an encumbrance against the property but remains an unpaid debt against the mortgagor. The creditor can sue in civil court.
If the second mortgagee forecloses and takes possession of the property it must pay the first mortgage or if they sell to a third party that party takes the property subject to the first mortgage.
AnswerThe first mortgage would have the first position on the lien. So if the second mortgage company foreclosed on the property - they would sell the property and the sale proceeds must go to pay off the first mortgage company first. Then, if there is anything left over, that money goes to the second mortgage company.For example, there is a first mortgage of 100,000 and a second mortgage of 40,000. The property is foreclosed and sold for 125,000. The first mortgage gets paid off (100,000) and the second mortgage company gets the remaining 25,000.The property owner still owes the second mortgage company the other 15,000.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Not true. Maybe different laws in different states but here the 2nd mortgage foreclosure sale does not directly effect the 1st mortgage. It remains a lien.
If the first mortgage is foreclosed the second mortgage lien gets wiped off the property by the foreclosure so the property can be sold free and clear of the second mortgage. However, the mortgagor still owes the debt to the lender and the lender can pursue collection of the amount due by a civil lawsuit.
Yes. It is possible to have a mortgage and get a second mortgage on the same property. In some cases there are more than two mortgages on a single property.
NO. The second mortgage is still secured by the property. Therefore it has to be reaffirmed or paid according to the stipulations of the lender.