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Yes. The British were worried that the French fleet might be seized by the Germans (even though the fleet had been left out of the armistice treaty) and used against them. Orders had been given by Admiral Darlan, the French naval commander, to sink the boats rather than let the Germans seize them, but that wasn't known to Churchill (that order was obeyed by the fleet in Toulon in 1942, when the Germans decided to invade the rest of France). A French naval squadron in the port of Mers El-Kebir, cannons facing the port, was cornered by mines dropped by English planes and shelled without warning or mercy. 1297 French seamen lost their lives (versus two English seamen). The resentment in France was huge and exploited for years by the Nazis' Propaganda.

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11y ago
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13y ago

After the fall of France to the German Army, the British Government asked the French Admirals to take the French ships to a British or Canadian port so that the German invaders wouldn't be able to add them to their own fleet. The French Admirals didn't reply to the request so Winston Churchill gave the order for them to be destroyed.

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11y ago

Yes, that's exactly what they did.

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Q: Did the British seize French ships that were in Britain and sink a French navy squadron at Mers-el-Kebir in July of 1940?
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