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This question was first answered by Francisco Victoria in 1532 "Of Indians and Lawful War (De Indis De Jure Beli). The simple answer is that Yes, they (native Americans) owned all lands in North America at the time of that treaty as well as all others. By international law they still own all those lands because the United States has violated the terms of the treaties and the treaty of Montevideo.

The long answer is: Four main legal issues were presented in this dissertation:

  1. Discovery
  2. Divine Provenience of King or God
  3. Treaties
  4. Lawful War

Discovery, was absurd as discovery implies that land was found upon which no one lived or no one claimed prior to discovery. Because the natives were in place at the time they were discovered, no discovery occurred except by those natives.

Divine Provenience, taken in two sections:

A) Since the natives did not know of any kings or their countries they could not therefore be a subject of said country, and;

B) Since they also knew nothing of the Pope's divinity, or the god upon which it was claimed, they therefore were also not subject to the church, and so;

No claim can be made upon the natives that they or their lands were subject to king or god absent their knowing, intentional, and willing subjection to such.

Lawful War occurs only in the rarest of circumstance where the whole of the people have violated the international rules of traders (merchants) upon those lands, subject to the provisions that such merchants complied with the law of the lands upon which they traveled. Without these conditions no action exists for a lawful war with the exception of the natives in conflict with the Spanish. Those natives that adhere to capture and execution of other natives for religious reasons violate the law of man.

Treaty, absent the willing subjection of the natives, the lands which they own and govern may only be taken by a just and willing treaty between the parties.

Please note the language used herein is translated and modernized.

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Q: Did the native Americans have a legal right to own land prior to the treaty of Echota?
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What was the legal system set up by the Spanish to define the status of native Americans?

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Where did the broken Indian treaties come from?

Native Americans did not know of a 'treaty' and had never heard of it before Europeans showed up and wanted their lands. By international law the only way to take the lands were through treaty, so they began signing them with the Native Americans. They then quickly broke them.As an example:The first act of the newly formed United States Government was to sign a treaty with Native American's, accepting the terms and conditions of all previous treaties signed with the original European governments (a blanket treaty that gave the USA legal rights to the lands): Treaty of Fort Pitt (September 17th 1778). The United States then broke that treaty within 2 weeks by disallowing the promised representative from taking a hand in government (as promised) then shooting them: Within one year of the treaty the United States had killed the two treaty signers, who were also complaining that the United States had violated their written word.To compound this, the United States passed a law "The Indian Reorganization and Recognition act" (1934) that intentionally broke (violated) every treaty signed with Native Americans and prevented any othersSo, I guess you can say that Broken Treaties come from a knowingly, intentional disregard for the consequences of action by the United States.


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What was the legal system set up by the Spanish to define the status of native Americans?

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Where did the broken Indian treaties come from?

Native Americans did not know of a 'treaty' and had never heard of it before Europeans showed up and wanted their lands. By international law the only way to take the lands were through treaty, so they began signing them with the Native Americans. They then quickly broke them.As an example:The first act of the newly formed United States Government was to sign a treaty with Native American's, accepting the terms and conditions of all previous treaties signed with the original European governments (a blanket treaty that gave the USA legal rights to the lands): Treaty of Fort Pitt (September 17th 1778). The United States then broke that treaty within 2 weeks by disallowing the promised representative from taking a hand in government (as promised) then shooting them: Within one year of the treaty the United States had killed the two treaty signers, who were also complaining that the United States had violated their written word.To compound this, the United States passed a law "The Indian Reorganization and Recognition act" (1934) that intentionally broke (violated) every treaty signed with Native Americans and prevented any othersSo, I guess you can say that Broken Treaties come from a knowingly, intentional disregard for the consequences of action by the United States.


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