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If you try and link just these two wars, your history will be inaccurate. All prior events are reflected in later historical events. For example, the Napoleonic wars ultimately led to the Prussian/Franco war. The VERY mild terms handed down by Germany/Prussia were hated by the French who lusted for revenge, which they got in 1919. George Washington warned the US against involvement in these interminable wars between the various European states. Unfortunately, his sage advise was ignored in the twentieth century. But, yes, of course, the two world wars are linked, mainly due to the harsh terms given to Germany by the French/British. I can think of no similar terms of such brutality handed out by one major power to another over the last three hundred years of world history. For example, the British defeated the French in wars of the 1760s and 1810s, both of which were 'world wars' themselves. In both wars, the French ceded some colonies, a little treasure, and little or no European territory. In neither defeat were the home territories of the French occupied, nor were their people subjected to mass rape, terror, arson or pillage. Likewise, when Germany defeated France in 1870, their terms were very mild. They demanded no (as in ZERO) colonies. They did not pillage or loot France itself. The only territory they took were the provinces of Alsace (German speaking, having been taken by Napoleon 60 years prior) and about 40% of Lorraine. The indemnity allocated was significant and in that respect somewhat similar to that of 1919. Contrast these three historically recent examples with what happended to Germany in 1919 and 1945. In 1919, 100% of German colonies were taken away. 19% of the land in Europe was stripped away and given to hostile neighbors. Most of the people in these lands were German speaking. Additionally Germany had their navy appropriated and sunk. Their army was restricted. They were forbidden all sorts of weapons. Their indemnity was large. All patents (of which Germany had many of great value) were taken. 1945 was even worse. German had no more colonies to give up, but again, about 20% of the remaining national territory was stripped away. There was no real money left in the country so an indemnity was worthless. Instead all the allies, especially the Russians, looted the country of anything they could move. Millions of women were raped, millions of men enslaved for up to ten years, millions of civilians were murdered. The country was divided and placed under military rule for decades. German was banned from almost all international organizations for many years. Thus, harsh terms will always lead to another war, unless, as in the case of 1945, they are SO harsh, that retaliation by the defeated power is hopeless.

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โˆ™ 2006-03-21 15:19:57
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Q: How did World War 1 contribute to the outbreak of World War 2?
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