At first it didn't. Spanish colonies tended to be men seeking advancement and the women stayed behind, and so they didn't have families in Europe for the most part. The lucky few who struck it rich and went home did of course. The big event in Spain in 1492 was the final defeat of the caliphate of Cordoba, and the end of a generation of war. This would be a better explanation for subsequent population increases than the early colonial efforts in the new world. At the time several plagues were believed to have been brought back from the new world, including syphilis. Much later the population was limited by periodic famine (starvation events) and adoption of the potato as a staple crop increased the available food supply, and the population. The potato was not widely cultivated in Europe until the 1700s.
Asia is the continent with the densest population, with countries like China and India having some of the highest population densities in the world.
No. Asia, Africa and the Americas have a higher population.
Introduced Africa to Christianity through Portuguese, A lot of weaponry were sent to Africa in exchange for slaves . As mentioned slavery increased specially in the Triangle of Trade ( weapons from Europe to Africa, slaves from Africa to America, Crops from America to Europe). After the discovery of Americas, Europeans wanted labor to farm and do the hard work for them when colonizing in America.
Looser read the book
Potatoes and corn, introduced from the Americas, had a significant impact on the population of Europe and Africa by providing a nutritious and plentiful food source, leading to population growth. In Europe, the introduction of potatoes helped mitigate famines, while in Africa, corn became a staple crop that contributed to increased population density in certain regions.
The Europeans did not get their slaves The Europeans did not get their slaves
North Africa has influence from Europe because the Europeans took it over (specifically the French, Spanish, Italians, and British). North Africa has influence from the Middle East because it is predominately Islam and it was also taken over by the Middle East as well.
Im not a geologist but I would think that Europe and MAYBE Africa formed them. I reason that Europe formed them because Alps are from there, and Africa might have had some tectonic influence.
Asia, Africa and Europe.
Of those three options, "Limiting American influence in Africa" is the least connected with European Imperialism, but it is worth noting that the others are also minimally connected . The US did not have any serious influence in Africa prior to the mid-1800s and was not attempting to strengthen connections between the US and Africa (especially after the US banned the slave trade in 1807). As a result, the Europeans were not worried about American influence in Africa to the extent that they would want to limit it."Population Overcrowding in Europe" led to an increased desire to settle other places, but it did not lead to imperialism per se. "Expanding the European slave trade" is also not really a reason for European Imperialism since, by the mid-1800s, most European countries had banned slavery, but as late as the early 1800s, a number of European countries were still trying to expand their African slavery networks.
With the discovery of the "missing link" in Germany does indicate that we came from Europe instead of Africa.
In ancient Africa, the Africans kept their gold mines secret and they used silent barter in order to not reveal the locations of the mines. The gold was traded with other countries such as Europe and Asia. It influenced the population because more people came to Africa, mostly from Islam. The Muslims then spread their Islamic ways in Africa.