How do you get out of a second mortgage when the house has been sold on a short sale?
Contact your mortgage company about doing a "short sale".
The new bank in which the refinance mortgage loan has been taken from becomes the new owner of the first mortgage at the closing table. As for the second mortgage, the second mortgage holder remains the same. Before the first mortgage can close with the new lender, however, they must agree to re-subordinate the second mortgage along with their new one. It is not uncommon. I hope this information helps. Best of luck! Regards, Total Mortgage Services
The buyer of a second mortgage is buying the rights of the mortgagee (lender) under the second mortgage. A buyer of a mortgage is correctly called a mortgage assignee. Therefore, the buyer of the second mortgage is subject to the first mortgage. The first mortgage needs to be paid, not "reinstated".The property remains subject to the first mortgage until it has been paid off. Even if the property is transferred to a new owner the property is subject to the first mortgage and the second mortgage if there was a second mortgage recorded in the land records. The second mortgage always remains subject to the first mortgage until the first mortgage has been paid.Note that a property subject to a mortgage is subject to all the terms of that mortgage. Mortgages have boilerplate "due on transfer" clauses. That means if there is any transfer in ownership of the property, the lender will demand payment of the mortgage in full, immediately.It sounds like you need to discuss this with an attorney who can review the details of your situation and explain your options.
The second is just a lien. It will have to be satisfied at the time of sale to clear title & should be when it is.
The second mortgage would have to have been cancelled with the Land Titles Office so that the Charge itself was officially deleted. Otherwise, the lender would still be entitled to payment of the outstanding principle.
Contact your mortgage company about doing a "short sale".
The new bank in which the refinance mortgage loan has been taken from becomes the new owner of the first mortgage at the closing table. As for the second mortgage, the second mortgage holder remains the same. Before the first mortgage can close with the new lender, however, they must agree to re-subordinate the second mortgage along with their new one. It is not uncommon. I hope this information helps. Best of luck! Regards, Total Mortgage Services
The buyer of a second mortgage is buying the rights of the mortgagee (lender) under the second mortgage. A buyer of a mortgage is correctly called a mortgage assignee. Therefore, the buyer of the second mortgage is subject to the first mortgage. The first mortgage needs to be paid, not "reinstated".The property remains subject to the first mortgage until it has been paid off. Even if the property is transferred to a new owner the property is subject to the first mortgage and the second mortgage if there was a second mortgage recorded in the land records. The second mortgage always remains subject to the first mortgage until the first mortgage has been paid.Note that a property subject to a mortgage is subject to all the terms of that mortgage. Mortgages have boilerplate "due on transfer" clauses. That means if there is any transfer in ownership of the property, the lender will demand payment of the mortgage in full, immediately.It sounds like you need to discuss this with an attorney who can review the details of your situation and explain your options.
Providing that all other requirements of law have been met, once the mortgage has been paid off and the clear title has been registered, you may give a house as a gift to whomever you want.
No.
No, the first lien hold cannot claim or collect any monies from the 2nd lien holder. The lien holders sole recourse is with the borrower.
The only way you may be able to keep the house is to negotiate with the bank. Foreclosures are expensive and in the present economic climate the bank may be willing to renegotiate the mortgage amount. You should seek the services of a local attorney who specializes in real estate financing.
The second is just a lien. It will have to be satisfied at the time of sale to clear title & should be when it is.
It depends on the laws of the the jurisdiction. In many cases the bank would have required this to get the mortgage. There may have been a quit claim deed filed with the mortgage.
Your mortgage should have been included in your chapter 7 discharge. If it was- then you are no longer liable for the mortgage, but the lender can still foreclose on the property. If the mortgage was not included- then why wasnt it included.
She would certainly have been wiser to get her name on the mortgage if she is paying it, however, she can still claim the status of common-law marriage, and community property (although specific laws vary by state).
What can a mortgage company do if mortgage has not been paid in 4 years