This answer will vary by state and depends on the situation. In one-action states such as California, if a lender foreclosed they cannot pursue the borrower further. If a first foreclosed the second is free to persue the borrower. In California the statute of limitations for collection of a debt is 7 years.
No. Once the first mortgage or deed of trust is foreclosed, the second mortgage and any inferior liens are voided.
AnswerThe first mortgage would have the first position on the lien. So if the second mortgage company foreclosed on the property - they would sell the property and the sale proceeds must go to pay off the first mortgage company first. Then, if there is anything left over, that money goes to the second mortgage company.For example, there is a first mortgage of 100,000 and a second mortgage of 40,000. The property is foreclosed and sold for 125,000. The first mortgage gets paid off (100,000) and the second mortgage company gets the remaining 25,000.The property owner still owes the second mortgage company the other 15,000.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Not true. Maybe different laws in different states but here the 2nd mortgage foreclosure sale does not directly effect the 1st mortgage. It remains a lien.
If the first mortgage is foreclosed the second mortgage lien gets wiped off the property by the foreclosure so the property can be sold free and clear of the second mortgage. However, the mortgagor still owes the debt to the lender and the lender can pursue collection of the amount due by a civil lawsuit.
No, they are two separate loans. If the second mortgage is foreclosed the lender takes possession of the property subject to the first mortgage. The borrower no longer owns the property.
Yes. "People with a second mortgage who are facing foreclosure should go to bankruptcy to get rid of the unsecured second-mortgage note," she said. "They should do it as soon as they're foreclosed upon, because that's when they're at rock-bottom, not when they've started to rebuild (their finances)."
No. Once the first mortgage or deed of trust is foreclosed, the second mortgage and any inferior liens are voided.
Assuming that the FIRST mortgage was foreclosed, a foreclosure wipes out any mortgages that were recorded after the foreclosed mortgage.
AnswerThe first mortgage would have the first position on the lien. So if the second mortgage company foreclosed on the property - they would sell the property and the sale proceeds must go to pay off the first mortgage company first. Then, if there is anything left over, that money goes to the second mortgage company.For example, there is a first mortgage of 100,000 and a second mortgage of 40,000. The property is foreclosed and sold for 125,000. The first mortgage gets paid off (100,000) and the second mortgage company gets the remaining 25,000.The property owner still owes the second mortgage company the other 15,000.--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------Not true. Maybe different laws in different states but here the 2nd mortgage foreclosure sale does not directly effect the 1st mortgage. It remains a lien.
If the first mortgage is foreclosed the second mortgage lien gets wiped off the property by the foreclosure so the property can be sold free and clear of the second mortgage. However, the mortgagor still owes the debt to the lender and the lender can pursue collection of the amount due by a civil lawsuit.
the main risk is that the first mortgage will not be paid. if the first mortgage is not paid, goes into default, and is foreclosed, the second mortgage will be determined in the foreclosure sale.
When your home is foreclosed on, the first or second can start the process. If you have a first mortgage and a second mortgage, your first mortgage is the first lien holder. Therefore if the second was first to foreclose they would have to pay the balance or negotiate the balance (agree to lower payoff). When a home is foreclosed on, all debts against the home are extinguished.Normally in a foreclosure the first mortgage will not negotiate with the second mortgage, in this instance the second mortgage would be out of the picture. VALUE (appraisal) plays a huge role in this process.
No, they are two separate loans. If the second mortgage is foreclosed the lender takes possession of the property subject to the first mortgage. The borrower no longer owns the property.
Yes. Any junior liens on the property are extinguished, but the debts themselves still remain (it may be hard to enforce them, though).
A second mortgage already has a lien on the home. If you don't pay the second mortgage they will foreclose and take the home. By paying off the first mortgage you just make it easier for the bank to get their money back out of the property when they sell it.
Yes. "People with a second mortgage who are facing foreclosure should go to bankruptcy to get rid of the unsecured second-mortgage note," she said. "They should do it as soon as they're foreclosed upon, because that's when they're at rock-bottom, not when they've started to rebuild (their finances)."
Yes. The second mortagee can foreclose and take possession of the property subject to the first mortgage.
Hate to tell you, but in my state (WA), if a senior deed of trust or mortgage is foreclosed, then the inferior/junior mortgages and/or deeds of trust are foreclosed as well. That means that you have no recourse subsequent to a foreclosure. I suggest seeing an attorney immediately (see the phone book for one who gives "free consultations").