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Probably not. That's pretty much up to the seller. But in court it will probably be counted as rent paid towards the car during the time the buyer used it and the buyer won't get the money back. If the buyer were paying on the car, but never had it in their possesion, it might be different. But I'd still say that it's up to the seller.

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โˆ™ 2015-07-15 19:35:41
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Q: If a person buying a used car from a private party in Oregon cannot complete the purchase do they get back the money already paid?
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